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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (8): "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date Added : 25-01-2018

 

Resolution No.(8) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

  "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date: 6/4/1407AH, 7/12/1986 AD

 

Question: What is the ruling on an heir receiving a share from the one that he had killed for the motivation of inheritance?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
The Board is of the view that the husband`s killing of his wife is unlawful, so it has decided that in this particular case, the killer doesn`t inherit the killed. In fact, this is the view of the Hanafite`s juristic school and it is effective in the Jordanian Civil Status Law. This is also the view of all juristic schools, which stipulate that a killer (an heir) is excluded from inheriting the killed in case of unlawful killing, whether it was intentional, or accidental. This is supported by what was narrated after the Prophet (PBUH) who said (What means): “An heir receives no inheritance from the person that he killed" ([1]). And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

 

([1]) Related by Abu Dawood in [Al-Sunn] - The Diyat Book/Organ's Diya Chapter. Hadith No.(4564) taken from the Narration of Amr Ibn Sho'aib who related from his father from their granfather. Al-Baihaqee commented in [AL-Sunn Al-Kobra] by saying: "The authentication of this Hadith is taken from other Hadithes" 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is an elderly or chronically ill person required to pay additional fidyah if they delay it beyond the first year?

An elderly person or someone permanently unable to fast must pay fidyah by feeding one needy person for each missed day.
However, if they delay paying fidyah beyond the first year, no additional fidyah is required.
This differs from someone who delays making up missed Ramadan fasts (qada) without a valid excuse until the next Ramadan begins—such a person is required to pay an additional fidyah for the delay.

Is it a condition for I‘tikaf to be performed in the mosque?

Yes, for I‘tikaf to be valid, it must be performed in a mosque. I‘tikaf is not valid if performed at home or elsewhere.

Is it incumbent on a husband to pay the alimony of his wife if she had left him and stayed at her parent`s without his permission?

When a wife leaves her house, and stays at her parent`s without asking her husband, she is considered a Nashiz (wife who refuses to abide by her husband’s orders), and so she doesn`t deserve an alimony.

Is it permissible for a woman to uncover her face while performing Umrah (minor Hajj)?

The woman while in a state of Ihram (ritual consecration) is obligated to uncover her face and hands, but at the same time permitted to let her head-covering garment drape from her head down over her face when non-Mahram (i.e., marriageable) men pass by her. And Allah Knows Best.

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