If a woman becomes pure from menstruation shortly after Fajr in Ramadan, what is required of her?
If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) after Fajr, even shortly after, it is recommended (but not obligatory) for her to refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day. However, she must make up for that day after Ramadan.
She will be rewarded for both refraining from eating (imsak) and making up the fast (qada) since she was menstruating for part of the day.
"I told my family at night: 'I will fast tomorrow as qaḍā' (a make-up fast),' but I forgot to make the intention before sleeping. Is my fast valid?"
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The intention is obligatory in acts of worship. For obligatory fasting, the required intention is to resolve to fast during the night [before dawn]. Its proper locus is the heart, while verbalizing the intention out loud in acts of worship is a sunnah — so that the tongue may align with the heart. If the intent behind the statement in question was the intention to fast, then it is valid; but if the intent was merely to inform someone, or reflected hesitation or doubt, then it is not valid.
It is stated in *Bushrā al-Karīm* (Vol.1/P.216): "It is a sunnah to verbalize the intention — that is, whatever has already been intended in the heart, whether an obligatory or a voluntary act — such as specifying the number of rak‘ahs, just before the opening takbīr — so that the tongue may assist the heart, and because this is further removed from whispered doubts (waswasah), and in order to accommodate the view of those who held it obligatory in every act of worship that requires an intention (even though this is a minority position), by analogy with Ḥajj."
Accordingly: if the intention to fast arose in your heart before the second adhān [i.e., before Fajr], then your fast is valid.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling of Islamic Law on performing the Witr prayer after the Adhan for Fajr prayer?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The time for Witr prayer begins after the ‘Ishā' prayer and ends with the rising of true dawn (al-fajr aṣ-ṣādiq). If a Muslim performs it at any point within this window, it counts as performed on time.
It is also recommended to make up a missed Witr prayer at any time — whether before or after performing the Fajr prayer, or at any other time of day. On the authority of Abū Sa‘īd al-Khudrī (raḍiyallāhu ‘anh), the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: "Whoever falls asleep and misses the Witr prayer, or forgets it, let him pray it when he remembers, or when he wakes up." (Related by at-Tirmidhī)
Shaykh al-Islām, Imam Ibn Ḥajar al-Haytamī (raḥimahullāh), says: "The time for Witr prayer is between the ‘Ishā' prayer and the rising of dawn, based on the authentic ḥadīth to this effect. If this time has passed, it is permissible for him to make it up (qaḍā') afterward." [Tuḥfat al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.