Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (8): "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date Added : 25-01-2018

 

Resolution No.(8) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

  "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date: 6/4/1407AH, 7/12/1986 AD

 

Question: What is the ruling on an heir receiving a share from the one that he had killed for the motivation of inheritance?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
The Board is of the view that the husband`s killing of his wife is unlawful, so it has decided that in this particular case, the killer doesn`t inherit the killed. In fact, this is the view of the Hanafite`s juristic school and it is effective in the Jordanian Civil Status Law. This is also the view of all juristic schools, which stipulate that a killer (an heir) is excluded from inheriting the killed in case of unlawful killing, whether it was intentional, or accidental. This is supported by what was narrated after the Prophet (PBUH) who said (What means): “An heir receives no inheritance from the person that he killed" ([1]). And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

 

([1]) Related by Abu Dawood in [Al-Sunn] - The Diyat Book/Organ's Diya Chapter. Hadith No.(4564) taken from the Narration of Amr Ibn Sho'aib who related from his father from their granfather. Al-Baihaqee commented in [AL-Sunn Al-Kobra] by saying: "The authentication of this Hadith is taken from other Hadithes" 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What are the Sharia consequences when the sacrificial time for the uḍḥiyyah comes to an end?

 
 
 
 
 
 

 
In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If the sun sets on the final day of Tashriq (the 13th of Dhu al-Hijjah) and the Udhiyah (sacrificial animal) has not yet been slaughtered, its designated time has expired. Should a person slaughter it after this point, it will not be counted as an Udhiyah.
 
However, if the sacrifice was a vowed one (Mandhurah), they are strictly obligated to slaughter it as a makeup act (Qada’), and its meat must be distributed entirely according to the rules governing vowed sacrifices.
 
It is stated in Bushra al-Karim (p. 702): "If one slaughters after sunset on the final day [of Tashriq]... it does not count as an Udhiyah, unless it was a vowed sacrifice, in which case it is fulfilled as a makeup act (Qada’)." And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

Does using a wet miswak while fasting break the fast?

A fasting person should ensure that the miswak is dry when using it.
However, if the miswak is slightly moist but does not release any liquid when squeezed, then its use does not break the fast.

Is it permissible for one to shake hands with his uncle`s daughter?

No, it isn`t because he is a non-Mahram (Marriageable) to her.