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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No. (8): "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date Added : 25-01-2018

 

Resolution No.(8) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

  "Ruling on an Heir Inheriting the Person that he had Killed"

Date: 6/4/1407AH, 7/12/1986 AD

 

Question: What is the ruling on an heir receiving a share from the one that he had killed for the motivation of inheritance?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.
The Board is of the view that the husband`s killing of his wife is unlawful, so it has decided that in this particular case, the killer doesn`t inherit the killed. In fact, this is the view of the Hanafite`s juristic school and it is effective in the Jordanian Civil Status Law. This is also the view of all juristic schools, which stipulate that a killer (an heir) is excluded from inheriting the killed in case of unlawful killing, whether it was intentional, or accidental. This is supported by what was narrated after the Prophet (PBUH) who said (What means): “An heir receives no inheritance from the person that he killed" ([1]). And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

 

([1]) Related by Abu Dawood in [Al-Sunn] - The Diyat Book/Organ's Diya Chapter. Hadith No.(4564) taken from the Narration of Amr Ibn Sho'aib who related from his father from their granfather. Al-Baihaqee commented in [AL-Sunn Al-Kobra] by saying: "The authentication of this Hadith is taken from other Hadithes" 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is a wife considered sinful if she asked for divorce because her husband married another woman?

A second marriage is lawful, and so it is impermissible for you to ask for divorce because of that. If you are certain that you won`t be able to deliver Allah`s rights and those of your husband`s , then it is permissible for you to ask for Khul`a (Divorce on the demand of the wife). However, you should exercise patience since after difficulties, there is easiness by the will of Allah.

Is my husband entitled to take my salary?

Your salary is yours, and you may give some of it to him as a kind of free-will contribution.

Is the patient who is on dialysis twice a week obliged to observe fasting? Is his fasting on the days he is on dialysis considered valid or not?

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.

Dialysis invalidates fasting because of the nutritional fluid used in that procedure, as pointed by specialized doctors, in addition to causing bodies to enter the stomach. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient who had undergone dialysis to observe fasting for the rest of that day, if he is able to, and make up for it after Ramadan. However, if the doctor told him that fasting, at any time, would damage his health, then he must break his fast and pay a ransom against every missed day. We pray that Allah blesses this person with recovery. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

There is a car dealership, and their method of selling is as follows: The customer pays the full price of the car, the car is registered in their name, and another contract is written in which the company commits to refunding the full price of the car to the customer after one year from the purchase date. What is the Islamic ruling on this transaction?

As for purchasing the car, paying its price, and owning it, this is a valid sale with no issue. However, the condition of refunding the price — whether the car is returned to the seller or not — is an invalid condition that nullifies the entire contract. Therefore, this transaction is invalid and not permissible. And Allah Knows Best.

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