Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(16) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
“Inheriting on Basis of Wala (Allegiance) and Manumission“
Date: 29/1/1411 AH, 20/8/1990 AD

 

We have received the following question: 
Mr. (Q) died this year in Makkah. His father Mr. (P) was a manumitted slave of Mr. (Y). Mr. (P) who had an heir (D) died without leaving him any estate. What is the ruling of Sharia on (D), does he remain manumitted like his father, or does he become free by the manumission of his father?
Mr. (Q) has died leaving a wife, a bequest, a debt, movable and immovable property in banks and companies...etc. His sole heir was his wife since he had no paternal relatives. Are the heirs of Mr. (Y) eligible to receive any share from the estate of Mr. (P) If yes, then to whom. The question that arises here is: who inherits Mr. (Q), and how should his estate be distributed after his debts are settled and his bequest is executed in charitable causes?
Answer: All success is due to Allah.
In this case, Mr. (Y) isn`t entitled to receive anything from the estate of Mr. (P). However, Mr. (Q`s) wife`s share is a quarter, and the rest of the estate is given to the public treasury because Mr. (P`s) mother is originally a free woman. This is based on what was stated in the books of jurisprudence: {Moghni Al-Mohtajj} and {Ash-sharh Al-Kabeer}; in volume (7), (P243) , in addition to another page of the latter book (247), that reads as follow: “One whom any of his free parents was originally free isn`t bound to pledge allegiance to anyone“. 
According to the articles of the Jordanian Law in force: “Mr. (Q`s) wife shall receive a quarter of his estate according to Islamic Sharia, and she shall also take the rest of his estate because she is his sole heir. This is stipulated in article (181) of the Jordanian Civil Status Law, which states that the rest of the estate shall be received by one of the spouses in case one of them died while having no paternal relatives.“ And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Mohammad Mohailaan
The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Izz Ad-Deen At-Tamimi
Dr. Yaseen Dradkeh
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Ibrahim Zaid Al-Khaylani

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is speaking to a person from the opposite sex forbidden or not?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Talking to a person from the opposite sex is forbidden in Islam because it entails a great deal of evil, which could lead to a graver sin. Moreover, Islam forbids having a friend from the opposite sex. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible to openly announce the engagement of a woman who is in her waiting period (iddah)?

It is not permissible to openly announce the engagement of a woman in her waiting period (Iddah), but it is permissible to hint (imply) at it if she is in her waiting period after the death of her husband. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on someone who prays Fajr late, after sunrise, knowing that they wake up on time but return to sleep and do not perform it within its time?

It is obligatory to perform the prayer within its prescribed time. If someone wakes up and knows how to act, they must perform it before the time ends. If they delay it, they are sinful and must make it up. And Allah Knows Best.

Does wiping over one's socks during ablution permissible?

If the socks were thick,  then wiping over them during ablution is permissible so long as wiping conditions are observed. And Allah Knows Best.