Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(16) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
“Inheriting on Basis of Wala (Allegiance) and Manumission“
Date: 29/1/1411 AH, 20/8/1990 AD

 

We have received the following question: 
Mr. (Q) died this year in Makkah. His father Mr. (P) was a manumitted slave of Mr. (Y). Mr. (P) who had an heir (D) died without leaving him any estate. What is the ruling of Sharia on (D), does he remain manumitted like his father, or does he become free by the manumission of his father?
Mr. (Q) has died leaving a wife, a bequest, a debt, movable and immovable property in banks and companies...etc. His sole heir was his wife since he had no paternal relatives. Are the heirs of Mr. (Y) eligible to receive any share from the estate of Mr. (P) If yes, then to whom. The question that arises here is: who inherits Mr. (Q), and how should his estate be distributed after his debts are settled and his bequest is executed in charitable causes?
Answer: All success is due to Allah.
In this case, Mr. (Y) isn`t entitled to receive anything from the estate of Mr. (P). However, Mr. (Q`s) wife`s share is a quarter, and the rest of the estate is given to the public treasury because Mr. (P`s) mother is originally a free woman. This is based on what was stated in the books of jurisprudence: {Moghni Al-Mohtajj} and {Ash-sharh Al-Kabeer}; in volume (7), (P243) , in addition to another page of the latter book (247), that reads as follow: “One whom any of his free parents was originally free isn`t bound to pledge allegiance to anyone“. 
According to the articles of the Jordanian Law in force: “Mr. (Q`s) wife shall receive a quarter of his estate according to Islamic Sharia, and she shall also take the rest of his estate because she is his sole heir. This is stipulated in article (181) of the Jordanian Civil Status Law, which states that the rest of the estate shall be received by one of the spouses in case one of them died while having no paternal relatives.“ And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Mohammad Mohailaan
The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Izz Ad-Deen At-Tamimi
Dr. Yaseen Dradkeh
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Ibrahim Zaid Al-Khaylani

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on having brotherly ties between a strange man and a strange woman, and is the former considered a Mahram (unmarriageable) to the latter?

Such a relation between a strange man and a strange woman is forbidden in Islam because it involves forbidding what Allah has allowed by marriage, and allowing what Allah has forbidden such as looking and the like. Such a relation doesn`t render any act lawful between them, thus they are forbidden to look at each other, have a Khulwah (seclusion), and travel together.

What is the ruling of Sharia on woman shaking hands with non-Mahram man?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "It is better to be stabbed in the head than touch a woman to whom one isn`t related." [Transmitted by Al-Tabarani /Al-Mo`jam Al-Kabir, Hadith No.16880]. Accordingly, it is forbidden for men to shake hands with non-Mahram* woman. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 
 
* The women/men that you are allowed to marry. It includes all women/men other than mahram (including cousins).

Is the one who gives up on marriage because he can`t afford it considered sinful?

Marriage is desirable, but one who can`t afford it isn`t considered sinful. However, he should supplicate to Allah, and seek His forgiveness.

What is the ruling of Sharia when a woman leaves her house at one in the morning without husband`s consent?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is unlawful for a woman to leave her house without husband`s consent. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.