Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(16) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:
“Inheriting on Basis of Wala (Allegiance) and Manumission“
Date: 29/1/1411 AH, 20/8/1990 AD

 

We have received the following question: 
Mr. (Q) died this year in Makkah. His father Mr. (P) was a manumitted slave of Mr. (Y). Mr. (P) who had an heir (D) died without leaving him any estate. What is the ruling of Sharia on (D), does he remain manumitted like his father, or does he become free by the manumission of his father?
Mr. (Q) has died leaving a wife, a bequest, a debt, movable and immovable property in banks and companies...etc. His sole heir was his wife since he had no paternal relatives. Are the heirs of Mr. (Y) eligible to receive any share from the estate of Mr. (P) If yes, then to whom. The question that arises here is: who inherits Mr. (Q), and how should his estate be distributed after his debts are settled and his bequest is executed in charitable causes?
Answer: All success is due to Allah.
In this case, Mr. (Y) isn`t entitled to receive anything from the estate of Mr. (P). However, Mr. (Q`s) wife`s share is a quarter, and the rest of the estate is given to the public treasury because Mr. (P`s) mother is originally a free woman. This is based on what was stated in the books of jurisprudence: {Moghni Al-Mohtajj} and {Ash-sharh Al-Kabeer}; in volume (7), (P243) , in addition to another page of the latter book (247), that reads as follow: “One whom any of his free parents was originally free isn`t bound to pledge allegiance to anyone“. 
According to the articles of the Jordanian Law in force: “Mr. (Q`s) wife shall receive a quarter of his estate according to Islamic Sharia, and she shall also take the rest of his estate because she is his sole heir. This is stipulated in article (181) of the Jordanian Civil Status Law, which states that the rest of the estate shall be received by one of the spouses in case one of them died while having no paternal relatives.“ And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Mohammad Mohailaan
The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Izz Ad-Deen At-Tamimi
Dr. Yaseen Dradkeh
Dr. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Ibrahim Zaid Al-Khaylani

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

If husband doesn`t pray, but wife does, is their marriage contract considered valid or not?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Not observing daily prayers is a grave sin, but doesn`t invalidate a person`s marriage contract. However, we advise you to save your husband from hellfire by convincing him to observe the prescribed prayers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

What is the Islamic ruling on parents asking son to divorce his wife?

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.

If their asking him to do so is justified in Sharia, then there is no blame on him to obey them. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

What is the Sharia (Islamic law) ruling on masturbation?

According to trustful physicians, masturbation is harmful to one`s health, and is forbidden according to the majority of Muslim scholars. Therefore, a Muslim should avoid all that which inflicts harm on him in the life of this world and the Hereafter.

What is the ruling on someone who perform their prayer after finishing it because they believe they missed a Rak'a, a prostration, or that they did not perform it correctly (thinking their prayer was invalid)?

If he was sure that his prayer is void then reperforming it is an obligation along with figuring out the reason of invalidity so long as this wasn't out of uncertainty. And Allah Knows Best.