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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(208): "Ruling on Trading with Dealcoholized Grape Wine"

Date Added : 05-10-2015

Resolution  No. (208)(18/2014), by The Board of Iftaa, Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Trading with Dealcoholized Grape Wine"

Date: 30/Zolqidah/1435 A.H, corresponding to 25/9/2014 A.D

 

All perfect praise is due to Allah, blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon his family and companions.

The Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies reviewed, in its twelfth session held on Thursday (30/Zolqidah/1435 A.H)-(25/9/2014 A.D), the letter sent by His Excellency, the Director General of the Jordan Food and Drug Administration in which he requested clarifying the Sharia ruling on the percentage of alcohol in “ Alcohol free grape juice “ product coming from Spain. The product is manufactured through fermentation first, then alcohol is processed out of it, without adding any chemicals, and that traces of alcohol remain in it, but these don`t exceed (0.04%) in the final product. It is worth mentioning that the product has a “Halal” certificate from the country of origin. It is also exported by the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia and the State of Kuwait.

After careful study and deliberation, the Board determined:

It is forbidden to have an intoxicant drink which is branded as “wine” even if it was dealcoholized  afterwards. The majority of the Muslim scholars deem that “wine” doesn’t become pure through being processed by human beings. This opinion is supported by the narration of Anas (May Allah be pleased with him) who reported that: ”when the Prophet (PBUH)  was asked if it is possible to process wine into vinegar, he said: (No)” {Muslim}. In addition, warding off harm lies in hindering such industry from becoming a reason for promoting and selling alcoholic drinks under the pretext that they are being processed and dealcoholized. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh.

Prof. Ahmad Helayel/ Member

Dr. Hayel Abdolhafeez/ Member

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member

Prof. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Prof. Mohammad Al-Qodah/ Member

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakkri/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Does swallowing a fly, road dust, or flour dust break the fast?

A fasting person does not break their fast if something enters their body cavity against their will, such as a fly, road dust, or flour dust.

My father has debts and asked me to repay them years ago, and I promised him I would do so upon his death — is it permissible for me to go back on my promise given that I am unable to repay them, especially since he refuses to contribute to repayment on the grounds that the debt has become my responsibility by virtue of my promise?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The established principle is that a father's debt is to be repaid from his own wealth, if he possesses sufficient means. As for the promise made by the son to repay it on his father's behalf, fulfilling such a promise is strongly recommended, and breaking it is considerably disliked. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Fulfilling a promise is emphatically recommended, and breaking it is severely disliked. The evidences for this from the Qurʾān and the Sunnah are well known." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn,Vol. 2/P.278] Shaykh al-Islām Imām Zakariyyā al-Anṣārī, may Allah have mercy upon him, further states: "The reason fulfilling a promise is not obligatory and breaking it is not forbidden is that a promise is in the nature of a gift, and a gift does not become binding except upon receipt." [Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib,Vol. 2/P.487]
Given that the son does not possess the financial means to fulfil his promise to his father, breaking this promise falls beyond his capacity — and Allah does not burden a soul beyond what it can bear. Since the father himself possesses sufficient wealth to settle his own debt, repayment must be made from his own funds. Should he pass away before doing so, the debt is to be settled from his estate. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the Zakah money received by a poor person, and reached a Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over having it in his possession?

Yes, the poor who possessed a Nissab for a whole lunar year is obliged to pay the Zakah due on that money even if it was given to him as a Zakah money in the first place. And Allah Knows Best.

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