Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 25-02-2020

 

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date: 5/3/1424 AH, corresponding to 7/3/2003

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

We have received the following question:

In 1977, I bought two hundred stocks of a non-Islamic bank and I want to atone this sin. What is the view of Sharia regarding these stocks? Should I keep them or give them to charity, but keep my principal sum? Am I allowed to give their value to one of my sons whom I`m not obliged to support, to pay for his tuition, marriage and the like. How should I calculate the difference in the value of the currency between that time and now?

The Board is of the view that she should sell all the stocks that she herself had purchased from the bank and from her husband, and then she should take only her principal sum as prescribed in the following verse: "Yet if you repent, you shall have your principal sums, not being unjust, and no injustice being done to you." {Al-Baqarah/279}. Moreover, She should distribute the remaining sum amongst the poor and needy, and she isn`t allowed to take any of it for herself unless she was poor. In this case, she may take what covers her need as a poor person. Moreover, she is allowed to spend on one of her sons whom she isn`t obliged to support as much as needed to cover the expenses of his study or marriage if he was poor.

As far as the calculation of the difference in the values of a currency between the times of purchasing the stocks and now, both values should be estimated and the total should be divided by two. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Aldeen Attamimi
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Dr. Yousef Ghizaan
Sheikhb Sa`id Hijjawi
Sheikh Na`iem Mujahid
Sheikh Mahmood Shwayat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is the marriage contract considered valid if concluded at home by the marriage official (Ma`zon)?

Yes, it is valid as long as it is registered at the court.

What is the ruling on someone who intends to travel to Jeddah for two days — must he enter iḥrām from his place of residence [i.e., before passing the mīqāt]?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Whoever is firmly resolved in his intention to perform ‘Umrah before setting out on his journey, it is unlawful for him to pass beyond his country's mīqāt (the designated boundary point for entering the state of iḥrām) without entering iḥrām. If he does so, he must return to the mīqāt to enter iḥrām from there, provided he has not yet begun performing the rites of the pilgrimage — in which case nothing further is required of him. However, if he does not return, he must offer a sacrifice (sheep/goat), to be distributed among the poor of the Ḥaram.
It is stated in at-Tanbīh fī al-Fiqh ash-Shāfi‘ī (p. 71): "Whoever, intending to perform the rites [of ‘Umrah or Ḥajj], passes beyond the mīqāt and enters iḥrām only after it, must offer a sacrifice. However, if he returns to the mīqāt before beginning any of the rites, the sacrifice is waived from him."
Accordingly: whoever is firmly resolved in his intention to perform ‘Umrah before setting out on his journey must enter iḥrām at the mīqāt of his country through which he passes. Whoever fails to do so, passing beyond the mīqāt without entering iḥrām, and does not return, has sinned, and must repent to Allah, the Exalted; and he must offer a sacrifice, to be distributed among the poor of the Ḥaram. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Does having a wet dream during the day in Ramadan break the fast?

Having a wet dream during the day in Ramadan does not invalidate the fast. However, one must perform ghusl (ritual purification) to ensure they do not miss their prayers.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on someone who wakes up in a state of janābah (major ritual impurity) near the very end of the prayer's designated time, during cold weather — should he heat water in order to perform ghusl, even though the prayer's time will expire as a result, or should he perform tayammum instead?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If the water is cold, and cannot be used due to fear of harm that is not ordinarily tolerable, or that would result in illness, then in this case it becomes obligatory to heat the water — even if heating it causes the time for Fajr to expire — and no sin is incurred in doing so, due to his valid excuse. He may not resort to tayammum (dry ablution) instead, since water remains available [and merely needs to be heated].
Imam Shihāb ad-Dīn Aḥmad ar-Ramlī (raḥimahullāh) said: "He was asked regarding a person who, if he were to use cold water, would experience harm that permits tayammum, and who has access to something with which he could heat the water — but if he heats it, the prayer's time will expire. Is it obligatory for him to heat it even if the time expires, or should he pray with tayammum within the prescribed time? He answered that it is obligatory for him to heat the water, even if the time for that particular obligatory prayer expires." [Fatāwā ar-Ramlī, Vol.1/P.98]
Imam al-Bājūrī (raḥimahullāh) said in his Ḥāshiyah on Sharḥ Ibn Qāsim (Vol.1/P.173): "And if he fears [harm] from using cold water, and is currently unable to heat it, but knows of a place where firewood is available, such that if he were to go there he would not return until after the prescribed time has expired — what appears [to be the correct position] is that it is obligatory for him to go and seek the firewood, even if the time expires as a result, as this is the position ultimately settled upon by ar-Ramlī, and as related from him by Ibn Qāsim." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.