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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 25-02-2020

 

Resolution No.(62): "Making Repentance after having Purchased Stocks of a non-Islamic Bank"

Date: 5/3/1424 AH, corresponding to 7/3/2003

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

We have received the following question:

In 1977, I bought two hundred stocks of a non-Islamic bank and I want to atone this sin. What is the view of Sharia regarding these stocks? Should I keep them or give them to charity, but keep my principal sum? Am I allowed to give their value to one of my sons whom I`m not obliged to support, to pay for his tuition, marriage and the like. How should I calculate the difference in the value of the currency between that time and now?

The Board is of the view that she should sell all the stocks that she herself had purchased from the bank and from her husband, and then she should take only her principal sum as prescribed in the following verse: "Yet if you repent, you shall have your principal sums, not being unjust, and no injustice being done to you." {Al-Baqarah/279}. Moreover, She should distribute the remaining sum amongst the poor and needy, and she isn`t allowed to take any of it for herself unless she was poor. In this case, she may take what covers her need as a poor person. Moreover, she is allowed to spend on one of her sons whom she isn`t obliged to support as much as needed to cover the expenses of his study or marriage if he was poor.

As far as the calculation of the difference in the values of a currency between the times of purchasing the stocks and now, both values should be estimated and the total should be divided by two. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Aldeen Attamimi
Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri
Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia
Dr. Yousef Ghizaan
Sheikhb Sa`id Hijjawi
Sheikh Na`iem Mujahid
Sheikh Mahmood Shwayat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

 
What is the ruling on the intention of fasting, where is its place, and when is its time?

The intention is a pillar of acts of worship; it is essential, and worship is not valid without it.
Its place is in the heart, and verbalizing it is recommended so that the tongue reminds the heart. Its meaning is to be determined to abstain from nullifiers of fasting during the upcoming day with the intention of worship and obedience to Allah Almighty. This meaning is naturally present in every Muslim on every night of Ramadan, so there is no need for obsessive doubts. If one says, "I intend to fast tomorrow for the sake of Allah," it removes any doubts.
Its time is from after sunset until before the true dawn.

What is the ruling on using a miswak (tooth-stick) during the day in Ramadan?

It is permissible to use a miswak before noon while fasting. However, according to the Shafi'i school, it is disliked (makruh) after noon in order to preserve the natural effect of fasting in the mouth, as the Prophetﷺ said in authentic hadith:
"The breath of a fasting person is more pleasant to Allah than the fragrance of musk."

Is it permissible to participate in an Udhiyah?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Regarding the sacrificial offering (Udhiyah), if it is a sheep or a goat, it only avails for one person. However, if it is a cow or a camel, it avails for seven people. It is permissible for the seven participants to have different intentions; for example, some may intend the sacrifice (Udhiyah), some the ’Aqiqah (sacrifice for a newborn), and others may simply intend to obtain meat.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat Qalyubi ‘ala Sharh al-Mahalli (Vol.4/P.256) and in Bushra al-Karim (p. 706):
 
"If one slaughters a camel or a cow on behalf of seven... it is permissible. Likewise, it is permissible if some of them intend their seventh for meat, and others intend their seventh for ’Aqiqah." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a suitor to go out with his fiancé upon the conclusion of the marriage contract?

Upon the conclusion of the marriage contract, the woman becomes lawful for her husband. However, the customary practice should be observed in this regard since rights could be lost in case of divorce, or death.

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