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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the Ruling of Islamic Sharia on investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After careful study and deliberation, the Board believes that investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies, which deal in illegal business such as trading in wine or producing it, is forbidden, and the same ruling applies to similar companies.

As regards companies that deal in lawful business, which was slightly mixed with that which is unlawful such as dealing in usury, investing in them is permissible, provided that the investors remove the usurious amounts from their profits and give them to the poor and needy Muslims. And Allah Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

   Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia     

  Dr. Ahmad Hilayil     

    Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

 Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

After our father had passed away, my brother and I stayed with our mother for twenty years and served her to the best of our effort. However, she asked our other brothers (3) to support her financially but they refused to pay her anything. As a result, she gave her share of the inheritance to me and my brother. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is recommended to give one`s children, males and females, equally. However, your mother is allowed to give one of them more than the others because he/she is needy or more dutiful to her than the others. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.  

Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Should a woman who broke her fast because of delivery make up for missed fasting days before the next Ramadhaan, and what is the expiation due on her in case she delayed making up for them ?

She should make up for missed fasting days before the start of next Ramadan if possible, but if she didn`t while being able to, then she is obliged to make up for them along with feeding a needy person for each delayed day of the missed fasting days. However, if she wasn`t able to make up for the missed fasting days before the start of next Ramadan, she has to fast a day for every day that she missed, and no ransom is due on her. And Allah Knows Best.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

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