Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the Ruling of Islamic Sharia on investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After careful study and deliberation, the Board believes that investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies, which deal in illegal business such as trading in wine or producing it, is forbidden, and the same ruling applies to similar companies.

As regards companies that deal in lawful business, which was slightly mixed with that which is unlawful such as dealing in usury, investing in them is permissible, provided that the investors remove the usurious amounts from their profits and give them to the poor and needy Muslims. And Allah Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

   Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia     

  Dr. Ahmad Hilayil     

    Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

 Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for an elderly person, a pregnant woman, or someone with a chronic illness to pay fidyah before Ramadan begins?

It is not permissible for an elderly person, a pregnant woman, or someone with a chronic illness to pay fidyah before Ramadan begins.
Additionally, it is not allowed to pay fidyah for more than one day in advance, because fidyah is a substitute for fasting, and fasting is not yet obligatory at that time.
However, it is permissible to pay fidyah for a single day in advance, by analogy with paying zakat up to one year in advance.

What is the ruling of Islam on swearing by Allah without intending to take an actual oath?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone swears by Allah without intending to take an actual oath, and without the firm resolve to bind themselves to it, then there is no sin or expiation (Kaffarah) required of them. Allah the Exalted says {what means}: 'God will not call you to account for thoughtlessness in your oaths, but for the intention in your hearts; and He is Oft-forgiving, Most Forbearing.' [Al-Baqarah/225]. However, a Muslim should avoid swearing oaths excessively so that their tongue does not become accustomed to it. Allah the Exalted says {what means}: 'And make not God’s (name) an excuse in your oaths against doing good, or acting rightly, or making peace between persons; for God is One Who heareth and knoweth all things.
' [Al-Baqarah/224]. And Allah the Exalted knows best."

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is washing the private part after urinating (Istinjaa`) a condition, and is it done with water and soap, or with water only?

Istinjaa` is obligatory for removing impurity, and it can be done with toilet paper, or a stone, or water. It is preferable to do Istinjaa` first with paper, or stone, or the like, then to wash the private part with water until making sure that the impurity has been removed. Using soap is not a condition, but there is no harm in doing so provided that it is washed off with water. It is also permissible to use either water, or paper if impurity is removed by any.