Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(68): “Ruling on Investing and trading in Stocks of Public Shareholding Companies“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board received the following question:

What is the Ruling of Islamic Sharia on investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After careful study and deliberation, the Board believes that investing and trading in stocks of public shareholding companies, which deal in illegal business such as trading in wine or producing it, is forbidden, and the same ruling applies to similar companies.

As regards companies that deal in lawful business, which was slightly mixed with that which is unlawful such as dealing in usury, investing in them is permissible, provided that the investors remove the usurious amounts from their profits and give them to the poor and needy Muslims. And Allah Knows Best.

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

   Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia     

  Dr. Ahmad Hilayil     

    Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

 Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on one who performs ablution or the ritual bath while having nail polish?

Nail polish must be removed before ablution or ritual bath so that water reaches what is beneath it, because it is a barrier that prevents water from reaching that area. This is based on the hadith narrated by Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) from the Prophet (peace be upon him): "Whoever leaves a hair's breadth of his body unwashed from major impurity, such and such will be done to him in the Fire." (Reported by al-Bukhari). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to agree with a butcher to purchase the meat of an animal after it has been slaughtered — for instance, by buying the meat of a sheep at a price determined by the weight of its meat following slaughter, at a fixed rate per kilogram? And what is the ruling if the animal is being purchased with the intention of it being an uḍḥiyyah (sacrificial offering)?

 
 
 
 
 

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is not permissible to sell livestock in the manner of pricing each kilogram of meat after slaughter at a fixed rate, because the meat within the animal prior to slaughter is unseen and unknown. This leads to jahālah (ignorance of the subject matter) and gharar (contractual uncertainty), both of which are among the invalidating factors in sales transactions.
However, it is permissible for the buyer to issue a promise to purchase the meat of the animal after slaughter at a specified price per kilogram, with the actual sale being concluded at the time of weighing the meat — at which point both the quantity of the goods and the total price become known. There is no Sharī'ah objection to this arrangement.
The jurists have stipulated that for a sale to be valid, both countervalues must be present and observable. Al-Khaṭīb al-Shirbīnī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states:
"It is valid to sell a heap of grain whose total measure is unknown to both contracting parties at a rate of one sā' per dirham. This sale is valid because the subject of sale is present and observable, and ignorance of the total price is not harmful since it is known in detail — and uncertainty is thereby lifted."— [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol.2/P.355]
As for the uḍḥiyyah, the 'aqīqah, and vowed blood sacrifices (al-dam al-mandhūr) — full ownership of the animal must be established prior to slaughter. It is not valid for such animals to be slaughtered while still in the ownership of the butcher. Rather, the animal must be purchased alive and then slaughtered with the intention of uḍḥiyyah or the like. And Allah Almighty knows best.

If a father stops his daughter from getting married, is it permissible for her to conclude the marriage contract herself?

It is permissible for the father to stop his daughter from getting married if there was a lawful reason for that, and she isn`t allowed to conclude the marriage contract without her guardian. However, if her father denied her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, then she should go to court.

Is it permissible for a guardian (Big brother) to unlawfully stop his sister from getting married?

If the guardian denies her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, she should go to court in order to settle that matter, and the guardian is considered sinful in this case.