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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(308): "Ruling on Selling Work Permits"

Date Added : 03-04-2022

Resolution No.(308)(3/2022) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Selling Work Permits"

Date: (24/ Sha`ban/1443 AH), corresponding to (27/3/2022 AD)

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all His family and companions.

At its 3rd meeting held on the above date, the Board received the following question: What is the ruling of Sharia on selling work permits?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following decision:

Work permits of expatriate workers are governed by the laws and regulations of the ministries concerned; therefore, they are to be observed since breaking them leads to general harm that affects the country`s economic situation and the labor market. These laws and regulations should be adhered to because they were originally made to prevent exploitation of human beings and labor trafficking, in addition to combating corruption that could take place in this sector.

Accordingly, it isn`t allowed for an employer to sell work permits because these stipulate specific conditions regarding the worker as well as the type of work, so selling them is a clear violation of these conditions. This is in addition to the fact that selling a permit is selling a property that the employer doesn`t actually own since the relevant ministry is the only authority entitled to grant this right, and , in principle, an employer should abide by the terms of the contract. The evidence on this is that Almighty Allah Says {What means}: "O ye who believe! fulfil (all) obligations."{Al-Ma`idah/1}. Moreover, the Prophet (Peace and blessings be upon him) said: "The Muslims will be held to their conditions." {Related by Tirmithi}. It can be added that selling these permits could lead to corruption and preying on the need of workers to make a living. Therefore, conditions stipulated in these work permits should be adhered to. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 Chairperson of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mahmoud al-Sartawi/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi/ Member

Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodat/ Member

Prof. Amjad Rasheed/Member

Dr. Jamil Khatatbeh/ Member

Dr. Ahmad al-Hasanat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Younis Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the prayer of zawal?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is recommended (sunnah) to pray four rakʿāt — either with a single tasleem or as two separate sets of two rakʿāt — immediately following the sun's decline from its zenith (zawāl). This prayer is distinct from the regular Sunnah prayer of Ẓuhr (sunnat al-ẓuhr al-rātibah), as explicitly stated by the Shāfiʿī jurists.
It is mentioned in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj: "The prayer of zawāl is offered after the sun's decline — so were one to perform it before that, it would not count. It consists of two or four rakʿāt and is distinct from the Sunnah of Ẓuhr, as is evident from the fact that it is mentioned separately after the regular Sunnah prayers, and it becomes a make-up prayer (qaḍāʾ) if a long period of time passes by customary reckoning... Al-ʿAlqamī stated: 'Scholars refer to this as the Sunnah of Zawāl, and it is distinct from the four rakʿāt that constitute the Sunnah of Ẓuhr.' Our shaykh said: Al-Ḥāfiẓ al-ʿIrāqī stated that among those who explicitly affirmed its recommendation was al-Ghazālī in al-Iḥyāʾ, in the chapter on devotional litanies, noting that there is no tasleem between them — meaning there is no break between each pair of rakʿāt."
The time of the sun's decline (zawāl) marks the very beginning of the time for the Ẓuhr prayer.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is the marriage, which lacks a valid legal contract, a guardian, and a court registration, valid?

It is incumbent that a valid marriage contract be concluded in the presence of a guardian and two trustful witnesses, and it should be registered in the court to protect the rights of the wife. Actually, a valid marriage contract is what differentiates between sound marriage and fornication.

What is the ruling on someone who fainted while fasting?

● If a person had the intention to fast from the night but then fainted during the day and regained consciousness before sunset, even for a moment, their fast remains valid.
● However, if they remain unconscious for the entire day, from Fajr until sunset, their fast does not count, and they must make up for that day later.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

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