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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(284): "About Fasting Ramadan by Person Infected with Corona Virus"

Date Added : 03-06-2020

 

Resolution No.(284)(4/2020) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

 "About Fasting Ramadan by Person Infected with Corona Virus" 

Date: (22/Sha`ban/1441 AH), corresponding to (16/4/2020).

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds.

At its third meeting held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question about fasting Ramadan by person infected with corona virus?

After careful consideration, the Board has taken the following decision:

Fasting Ramadan is prescribed to our nation as it was prescribed to nations before us to purify our hearts from sin and our elevate status in the sight of Allah for fasting is His and He rewards for it without measure. He the Almighty Says (what means): "O ye who believe! Fasting is prescribed to you as it was prescribed to those before you, that ye may (learn) self-restraint." {Al-Baqarah,183}.

Islamic Sharia intends every facility to the sick, including those infected with corona virus, who fear harm from observing prescribed fast. Thus, the patient-who is advised by medical doctors not to fast to prevent his health from deteriorating or in order for him to make a speedy recovery-should make use of this concession and make up missed fasts when able to. As for the healthy person who isn`t on a journey, he is obliged to observe fast and not entitled to any exemptions in this regard. Rather, such a person should be keen on observing fast during pandemic and encourage himself to do so by drawing closer to Allah through making repentance and performing different acts of devotion. Allah Says {what means}: " Ramadan is the (month) in which was sent down the Qur’an, as a guide to mankind, also clear (Signs) for guidance and judgment (Between right and wrong). So every one of you who is present (at his home) during that month should spend it in fasting, but if any one is ill, or on a journey, the prescribed period (Should be made up) by days later. God intends every facility for you; He does not want to put to difficulties. (He wants you) to complete the prescribed period, and to glorify Him in that He has guided you; and perchance ye shall be grateful." {Al-Baqarah, 185}. And Allah the Almighty Knows Best. 

 

Chairperson of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad al-khalayleh

Dr. Mahmoud al-Sartawi, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Dr. Majed al-Darawsheh, Member

Dr. Ahmad al-Hasanat, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodaat/Member

Dr. Jamil Khatatbeh/Member

Dr. Amjad Rasheed/Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Should nail polish be removed before making ablution?

Yes, it should be removed because it prevents water from reaching the nails.

What is the ruling on a mother giving the Zakat of her wealth to her children?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible for a mother to give her children from the Zakat if they are among those who are eligible for it—such as being poor (Fuqara), possessing no wealth, and not being sufficiently provided for by the maintenance (Nafaqah) of others. This is based on the statement of the Messenger of Allah ﷺ regarding Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud (may Allah be pleased with them both): (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend in charity) [Narrated by Al-Bukhari].
 
It is stated in [Al-Hawi al-Kabir, Vol. 8/P.537]: 'As for the wife, it is permissible for her to pay her Zakat to her husband from all the designated shares... Our evidence is the generality of the saying of Allah the Almighty: "Zakat expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy", and the Hadith of Abu Hurairah that the Prophet ﷺ said to Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud: (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend), and this is taken in its general sense.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is it permissible to offer mandatory prayer while sitting?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.                                                                                                                                                                                                                            Standing up is a pillar in the mandatory prayer and the prayer is not valid without it unless one cannot do it. As for Nafila (supererogatory prayer), one can perform it in the state of sitting even if he/she can stand, but his/her reward is half the reward of the person who prays while standing if he/sh has no legal excuse for such an act. And Allah Knows Best.

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