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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(256): "Ruling on Proving Lineage of Child Born out of Wedlock"

Date Added : 15-05-2018

Resolution No.(256)(9 /2018) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Proving Lineage of Child Born out of Wedlock"

Date: 3/Sha`ban/1439 AH, corresponding to 19/4/2018 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its fifth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the letter sent from Mr. Hussein Al-Qaisi, Chairman of the House of Deputies` Legal Committee, and it read as follows: Could you clarify the ruling of Sharia on attributing the child born out of wedlock, in rape cases, to rapist if definite scientific methods have proven that?

After deliberating, the Board decided to ask the House of Deputies to rephrase article (157) of the Civil Status Law No.(36)/2010, to read as follows:

1- A child`s lineage to father is proven by wedlock, confusedness of sexual intercourse, father`s confession or the existence of a proof.

2- The court has the right to prove lineage by resorting to definitive scientific methods with observing the rulings of proving lineage by wedlock. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Judge Khalid Wuraikat,    Member

Dr. Mohammad al-zou`bi, Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on performing dry ablution (tayammum) instead of the ritual bath due to severe cold?

Whoever is sick such that he cannot use water, or finds the water cold and heating it is not possible, and the person would be harmed by using cold water, it is permissible for him to perform tayammum. He must make up what he prayed with tayammum, because this is a place where there is water. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a menstruating woman (ḥā'iḍ) reciting the Islamic ruqyah (Qur'anic/spiritual healing)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible for a person in a state of janābah (major ritual impurity), or a menstruating woman (ḥā'iḍ), or a woman in postpartum bleeding (nufasā'), to recite for the purpose of ruqyah (spiritual/Qur'anic healing), even if this includes some verses of the Noble Qur'an — whether recited from memory or by looking at the Muṣ-ḥaf (the physical copy of the Qur'an) without touching or carrying it — provided that the intention behind the recitation is ruqyah, protection (taḥṣīn), and remembrance (dhikr), not the intention of tilāwah (Qur'anic recitation as an act of worship in itself). This remains permissible even if what is recited is an entire sūrah, such as Sūrat al-Mulk.
Imam al-Khaṭīb ash-Shirbīnī (raḥimahullāh) said: "It is lawful for a person in janābah to utter its [the Qur'an's] remembrances and other content — such as its admonitions, its narratives, and its rulings — so long as it is not with the intention of [reciting] Qur'an. [This is] like his saying upon mounting [a vehicle]: 'Glory be to Him Who has subjected this to us, and we could never have accomplished this [by ourselves]' [Sūrat az-Zukhruf: 13] — meaning, [could never have] been capable of it — or upon a calamity: 'Indeed we belong to Allah, and indeed to Him we shall return'... In fact, my teacher, ash-Shihāb ar-Ramlī, issued a fatwā that even if he recited the entire Qur'an without the intention of [reciting] Qur'an, it would be permissible." [Summarized from Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol. 1/P.217] And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible for one to shake hands with his uncle`s daughter?

No, it isn`t because he is a non-Mahram (Marriageable) to her.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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