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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(7): “Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate“

Date Added : 25-01-2018

Resolution No.(7) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

      “Ruling on the Guardianship of an Apostate“

 

Question: Does apostasy make a father ineligible for guardianship over his family?

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

All members of the  Board have agreed that an apostate isn`t considered eligible for guardianship over his Muslim children, so long as he remains as such, for the following reasons:

1- The verse which reads: “And never will God grant to the unbelievers a way (to triumphs) over the believers.“ {An-Nissa`/141}.

2- Article No.(2) of the Jordanian Constitution states that Islam is the official religion of the state.

3- According to Sharia, an apostate deserves to be killed unless he reverts to Islam, and this is why he takes the rulings of the dead as far as his family affairs are concerned.

4- An apostate is no longer a member of the Muslim community, and this is why he takes the ruling of the dead.

Accordingly, once the Sharia judge passes the verdict that Mr.x is an apostate, and separates him from his wife, then there is no reason in Sharia that prevents issuing a family register in the wife`s name, in which her minor children are included as she becomes responsible for them. This is provided that the new register indicates the lineage of these children, and states that their father has become an apostate. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 Iftaa` Committee

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman to observe voluntary fast without her husband's permission?

A woman is not permitted to observe a voluntary fast (nafl) while her husband is present without his permission.

What is the ruling on performing istinja' with perfumed tissues or a tissue moistened with water?

Performing istinja' with perfumed or moistened tissues is not sufficient if they are not dry, due to the moisture on them reaching the impurity, which increases its spread rather than reducing it. Then, to remove the impurity, one must use pure water. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on water present on the floor of a toilet/bathroom?

The default ruling is the purity of this water present on the bathroom floor. If one is certain or strongly suspects its impurity, then one washes whatever part of the body or clothing this impure water has touched. If one doubts its impurity, the default is purity, and we do not rule it impure based on mere doubt. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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