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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(225): "Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date Added : 28-11-2016

Resolution No.(225) by the Board of Iftaa, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date: 25/Sha`ban/1437 AH, corresponding to 1/6/2016 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its seventh session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question received from the Zakat Fund`s Director-General, and  reads as follows: 
The Zakat Fund pays a total of (2,500,000) as monthly allowances to (3000) poor families from the Zakat money it receives. If these revenue are equal to what the Fund pays to the poor families, then there is no harm in that; but if they aren`t, then the surplus should be delayed to the following years so as for the Fund to cover those allowances. Does this contradict Sharia?
After deliberating, the Board decided the following:
In principle, Zakat must be paid immediately because it is an acknowledged right for the beggar and the deprived. This right is due by the end of each lunar year since it is forbidden to delay giving rights to whom they belong. Al-Khateeb Ash-Shirbini said: "Zakat must be paid immediately because its recipients are in need for it." {Moghni Al-Mohtajj}. If the availability of the Zakat money for the coming year is guaranteed, Insha`Allah, it is more prudent to divide the surplus amongst the recipients by adding it to their monthly allowances or to increase the number of recipients in order to help other poor and needy people to cover their expenses without delaying the payment of Zakat money.
However, if the Zakat Fund is certain that it can`t afford the allowances of the poor for the coming year, and decided that delaying the distribution of the surplus amongst them is in their best interest, then there is no harm in doing that, because scholars have permitted the administrator of the Zakat funds to delay paying them for a necessity, as stated by Sheikh Al-Islam Zakaria Al-Ansari: "It is permissible for the administrator of the Zakat funds, who is appointed by the ruler, to delay their distribution in order to receive more funds since he isn`t obliged to give each small sum that he receives". [Asna' Al-Matalib]. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh
Vice chairman, Prof. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Hayel Abdulhafeez/ Member
Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Prof. Abdlnasser Abulbasal/ Member
Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/ Member
Islamic Judge Khaled Woraikat/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair al-Eesa/ Member
Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

My father passed away, and he had life insurance with "Alico" for an amount of 12,500 dinars. He had paid premiums totaling 2,000 dinars. The insurance company paid us the insured amount. Should we take it, or is it considered forbidden (haram) money? And what should we do with it if it is forbidden?

You may take the amount your father paid to the company. The remaining amount is not yours. However, if you must take it, then accept it and donate it to the poor. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible for the guardian to give Sadaqa (voluntary charity) from the money of the orphans?

It is impermissible for the guardian to donate from the money of the orphans because he is entrusted with the safekeeping of that money, and is prohibited from donating it.

Is it permissible for a person, who vowed to offer two Rak`ahs (units of prayer) everyday for Allah`s sake, to do so after the Fajr (dawn) prayer?

In principle, a vow should be fulfilled as it was originally intended, and if its time lapses then, it should be fulfilled at any time because of the vow. Therefore, it is permissible to offer them after the Fajr prayer, and there is no prohibition in doing so. However, it is preferable for him to offer these two Rak`ahs at some other time to avoid the disagreement amongst the scholars in this regard.

Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?

The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.

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