Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(225): "Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date Added : 28-11-2016

Resolution No.(225) by the Board of Iftaa, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date: 25/Sha`ban/1437 AH, corresponding to 1/6/2016 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its seventh session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question received from the Zakat Fund`s Director-General, and  reads as follows: 
The Zakat Fund pays a total of (2,500,000) as monthly allowances to (3000) poor families from the Zakat money it receives. If these revenue are equal to what the Fund pays to the poor families, then there is no harm in that; but if they aren`t, then the surplus should be delayed to the following years so as for the Fund to cover those allowances. Does this contradict Sharia?
After deliberating, the Board decided the following:
In principle, Zakat must be paid immediately because it is an acknowledged right for the beggar and the deprived. This right is due by the end of each lunar year since it is forbidden to delay giving rights to whom they belong. Al-Khateeb Ash-Shirbini said: "Zakat must be paid immediately because its recipients are in need for it." {Moghni Al-Mohtajj}. If the availability of the Zakat money for the coming year is guaranteed, Insha`Allah, it is more prudent to divide the surplus amongst the recipients by adding it to their monthly allowances or to increase the number of recipients in order to help other poor and needy people to cover their expenses without delaying the payment of Zakat money.
However, if the Zakat Fund is certain that it can`t afford the allowances of the poor for the coming year, and decided that delaying the distribution of the surplus amongst them is in their best interest, then there is no harm in doing that, because scholars have permitted the administrator of the Zakat funds to delay paying them for a necessity, as stated by Sheikh Al-Islam Zakaria Al-Ansari: "It is permissible for the administrator of the Zakat funds, who is appointed by the ruler, to delay their distribution in order to receive more funds since he isn`t obliged to give each small sum that he receives". [Asna' Al-Matalib]. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh
Vice chairman, Prof. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Hayel Abdulhafeez/ Member
Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Prof. Abdlnasser Abulbasal/ Member
Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/ Member
Islamic Judge Khaled Woraikat/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair al-Eesa/ Member
Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

A woman became pure [from menstruation] before Fajr, but did not perform ghusl until after sunrise — what is the ruling on her fast?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Her fast is valid, since ghusl (ritual bathing) is not a condition for the validity of the fast, but rather for the validity of the prayer. However, she is sinful for delaying the Fajr prayer beyond its designated time without a valid excuse.
It is known that the time for Fajr prayer ends at sunrise. Nevertheless, she must still perform ghusl, and make up the Fajr prayer. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible for a menstruating woman to recite the Quran from the computer without actually touching the Quran?

It is not permissible for a woman in her menstrual period, or in postpartum to recite the Quran, even by heart, or without actually touching the Quran itself. Recitation itself is what is prohibited on her regardless of how it is done. However, it is permissible for her to surf through the Quran by her eyes, or to recall it in her head without uttering the words. There is no harm for her to look at the Quranic verses on the computer without touching it, or to utter the words as this is called looking not reciting or reading.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on kissing while fasting?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is prohibitively disliked (makrūh taḥrīman) for a husband to engage in foreplay with or kiss his wife during the daylight hours of Ramaḍān if doing so stirs his desire. If pre-seminal fluid (madhī) is released as a result, the fast is not invalidated; however, if seminal fluid (manī) is released, the fast is broken.
Imām al-Khaṭīb al-Sharbīnī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "It is prohibitively disliked to kiss — whether on the mouth or elsewhere — for one whose desire is stirred, whether man or woman, to the extent that he fears it may lead to intercourse or ejaculation. Embracing, touching, and similar acts without a barrier carry the same ruling as kissing in this regard, because such acts expose the act of worship to being corrupted — and as the two Ṣaḥīḥs record: 'Whoever circles around a protected boundary is liable to fall into it.'"
He further added: "It is preferable for one whose desire is not stirred — even if he is a young man — to refrain from such acts as well, so as to close the door entirely. For he may believe his desire has not been aroused when in fact it has. Moreover, it is Sunnah for the fasting person to abstain from all desires without exception." — Summarised with minor adaptation from [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.