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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(39): "Ruling of Sharia on Bahaism"

Date Added : 03-12-2015

 

Resolution No.(39): "Ruling of Sharia on Bahaism"

Date: 25/6/1417 AH, corresponding to 7/11/1996

 

The Board has received the following question: 
What is the ruling of Sharia on Mr. (X`s) request to obtain a family register for the first time, taking into consideration the fact that he embraces Baha'ism?
Answer: All prefect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Board is of the view that it isn`t permissible to register the religion of the above mentioned person in his family register or passport because the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan doesn`t recognize "Baha'ism" and any Muslim who converts to it is considered an apostate and takes the rulings of Sharia on apostates. Moreover, in the official records and documents he remains a Muslim based on his father`s family register until a Sharia court rules that he is an apostate. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa`Board, Chief Justice, Deputized Mufti of Jordan, Izzaldeen Al-Tamimi

Sheikh Sa`eid Hijjawi

Dr. Yousef Ghyzan

           Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

          Dr. Mahmood Al-Bhakeet

Dr. Fat-hi Alduraini

                   Sheikh Mahmoud Al-Shewayat

         Dr. Mahmood Al-Sartawi

        Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

How should I be kind to my atheist father?

Allah, The Exalted, has decreed and ordained his slaves to be kind with parents, even if they are polytheists, by honoring and obeying them in all that isn`t sinful, so that they might love Islam and embrace it as a result.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?

If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best. 

What should a woman who delayed making up for missed fast, due to menstruation, till the start of the next Ramadan?

Whosoever broke fasting in Ramadan, and was able to make up for it, but didn`t until the next Ramadan started, is obliged to make up for the missed days, and to pay the ransom as well. However, if he/she wasn`t able to before next Ramadhaan due to an excuse, then he/she should only make up for the missed days. And Allah Knows Best.

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