Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(69): “Ruling of Sharia on the Definition of Reproductive Health“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(69): “Ruling of Sharia on the Definition of Reproductive Health“

Date: 5/8/1424 AH corresponding to 1/10/2003 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the opinion of the Iftaa` Board as regards the following definition of reproductive health?

Reproductive health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and to its functions and processes. Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so. Implicit in this last condition are the right of men and women to be informed and to have access to safe, effective, affordable and acceptable methods of family planning of their choice, as well as other methods of their choice for regulation of fertility which are not against the law, and the right of access to appropriate health-care services that will enable women to go safely through pregnancy and childbirth and provide couples with the best chance of having a healthy infant. {The International Conference on Population Development}.

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

After reviewing the above definition, the Board made the following remarks:

1- The statement: “Reproductive health therefore implies that people are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so” contradicts with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read  as follows: “Reproductive health therefore implies that both spouses are able to have a satisfying and safe sex life and that they have the capability to reproduce and the freedom to decide if, when and how often to do so, in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia.“

2- The above definition includes legal and illegal relationships between men and women, and this violates the principles of Islam, which only permits relationships through legal and valid marriage since Allah, the Almighty Says in this regard {what means}: “It is He Who has created man from water: then has He established relationships of lineage and marriage: for thy Lord has power (over all things).” {Al-Furqan/54}. Scholars stated about the interpretation of this verse: {Lineage is the mixing of water (sperm) between a male and a female legally; otherwise, it becomes neither a lineage nor a marriage.} Allah Says {what means}: “And among His Signs is this, that He created for you mates from among yourselves, that ye may dwell in tranquillity with them, and He has put love and mercy between your (hearts): verily in that are Signs for those who reflect.” {Ar-Rum/21}.

3- The statement: “Which are not against the law “isn`t in line with the rules of Islamic Sharia, so it must read as follows: “Which aren`t against the rules of Islamic Sharia.” This is because it is an obligation on every Muslim man and woman to abide by the rules of Sharia, and not to commit any act that violates them, for Allah Says {what means}: “But no, by the Lord, they can have no (real) Faith, until they make thee judge in all disputes between them, and find in their souls no resistance against Thy decisions, but accept them with the fullest conviction.” {An-Nisa`/65}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Iftaa` Board

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-Tamimi

                Dr. Mohammad Abu Yahia               

    Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

   Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

        Sheikh Na`eim Mujahid

                 Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is the prayer of a woman who is led by an Imam via T.V. permissible?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.                                                                                                                                                                                                                          Amongst the conditions for the validity of prayer is that both the Imam and those led by him must be in the same place. Thus, the prayer of the person who is being led by a televised Imam is invalid unless he/she was with him in the same mosque. And Allah Knows Best.

What are the benefits of slaughtering an Aqeeqah?

All Perfect Praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.                                                                                                                                                                                                                          Extending thanks to Allah for His grace, expressing happiness for having a newborn, declaring lineage, and feeding the mother to compensate for the blood that she had lost during delivery.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is the niṣāb calculated based on the price of 21-karat gold, or 24-karat gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on cash and on gold designated for saving or for trade, provided the total reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The niṣāb is (85) grams of 24-karat gold; for 21-karat gold, the niṣāb equals (97) grams; and for 18-karat gold, it equals (113) grams.
The relied-upon position is to calculate the zakāh based on the buying price [i.e., the price the gold merchant would pay the owner to purchase the gold from him] on the day the zakāh obligation is due.
The one paying zakāh may assess/calculate the niṣāb using any of the aforementioned gold karats [i.e., he may choose whichever karat standard he wishes for the purpose of the calculation]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.