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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(13): “The Prophecy of Adam (PBUH)“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(13) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:   

 “The Prophecy of Adam (PBUH)“

Date: 8/7/1409 AH, 14/2/1989 AD.

 

Question: What is the ruling of Sharia on the Prophecy of Adam (PBUH), and on those who deny it?
Answer: All success is due to Allah.
The Board is of the view that the Prophecy of Adam (PBUH) is established in the Quran and the Sunnah  (Prophetic tradition) because in Sharia terms a Prophet is: a man to whom a law was revealed,and this definition applies to Adam (PBUH) as shown in the following verses: “God did choose Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham,and the family of ’Imran above all people.“ {Al-Imran/33} also, He, The Most Exalted Said (What means) “We had already, beforehand, taken the covenant of Adam, but he forgot: and We found on his part no firm resolve.“ {Taha/115}, “But his Lord chose him (for His Grace): He turned to him, and gave him Guidance. “ {Taha/122}, and “For We assuredly sent amongst every People an apostle, (with the Command), "Serve God, and eschew Evil": of the People were some whom God guided, and some on whom error became inevitably (established). So travel through the earth, and see what was the end of those who denied (the Truth).“ {An-Nahil/36}.
Before Noah (PBUH), humanity was in a dire need for a divine guidance, and that was what Adam (PBUH) has delivered to his sons.
The Quranic verses about Adam-even though they haven`t stated his prophecy as explicitly as that of other Prophets-have strongly indicated his prophecy. Moreover, the majority of the interpreters of the Quran stated that Adam is one of the Prophets; therefore, acknowledging his prophecy is one of the basics of Islamic creed.
Our Scholars have also relied on Sunnah in proving the prophecy of Adam (PBUH). One of the most sound narrations in this regard is the one reported after Abi Ummamah Al-bahili (May Allah be pleased with him) and reads: “A man said to Prophet Mohammad (PBUH): O Messenger of Allah! A prophet was Adam? He replied: Yes.“ {Ibn Habban, Tabarani, and Al-Hakim}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

 Should a person who doesn’t offer Tasbeehb (saying Subhaana Rabbiya Al-‘Atheem during Rukoo`, and saying Subhaana Rabbiya Al-A‘laa during Sujood) during Rukoo` and Sujood perform As-Sahw Sujood (prostration of forgetfulness)?

He/ she doesn`t have to perform Sujood As-Sahw, whether he/she didn`t offer Tasbeeh during Rukoo` and Sujood either intentionally ,or unintentionally, provided that the attentiveness of the heart wasn`t undermined since it is a pillar in both.

Is Iddah (waiting period) incumbent on an old woman whose husband had died?

Upon the death of the husband, Iddah is incumbent on the wife regardless of their age. And Allah Knows Best.

It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers

If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?

If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best. 

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