Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(167): "Ruling on the Uncovered Credit Card at the Islamic Bank"

Date Added : 08-10-2015

Resolution No.(167) (8/2011) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Uncovered Credit Card at the Islamic Bank"

Date 26/8/1432AH, corresponding to 28/7/2011AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its eleventh session held on the above given date, the Board reviewed the following question:
What is the ruling of Sharia when a client of the Islamic Bank requests issuing him a credit card in return for a charge (15-30) JDs, where he uses this card to purchase products while his balance is uncovered, so the bank debits them to his account until his salary arrives. Afterwards, the bank deducts the exact value of those products from the client`s salary. However, if he withdrew a certain cash amount from an ATM using that card-while his balance is uncovered- the bank deducts it from his salary in addition to 4% of that amount?
After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided:
Part one: The issuance charge (15-30) JDs charged by the bank on annual basis  against offering actual services to the client is permissible if it equals them. Also, if the client made a withdrawal from the bank by using this card while having a covered balance, then it is permissible for the bank to deduct a specific fee in return for that service.
Part two: Making a withdrawal through this card from ATM machine while the client`s balance is uncovered and the bank deducting it from his salary in addition to 4% from the withdrawn amount is unlawful. This is because in Sharia terms this transaction is classified as a loan and the Sharia maxim in this regard states that every loan which leads to a benefit is usurious. Consequently, every interest that results from this loan in favor of the bank is a forbidden usury. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means): "Those who devour usury will not stand except as stand one whom the Evil one by his touch Hath driven to madness. That is because they say: "Trade is like usury," but God hath permitted trade and forbidden usury" {Al-Baqarah/275}. And Allah Knows Best.


Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, The Mufti General of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh.
Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Helayel
Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member
His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Judge Sari Attieh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa/ Member
Prof. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Oklah Al-Ib`brahim
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member
Dr.Abdulrahmann Ibbdah/ Member
Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hunaiti

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on following the actions of the imam in prayer and how this following is achieved?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The follower (ma'mum) is required to follow his imam in the actions of the prayer. This "following" (mutaba'ah) means that the follower performs each action of the prayer after the imam has begun it but before he has finished it. For example, the follower bows (in ruku') after the imam has reached the position of bowing, then rises after the imam has risen. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The imam is only appointed to be followed, so when he says the takbir, say the takbir; and when he bows, then bow; and when he prostrates, then prostrate" (agreed upon, i.e., reported by both al-Bukhari and Muslim).
It is stated in Mughni al-Muhtaj (1/505): "Among the conditions of valid congregational prayer (iqtida') is following the imam in the actions of the prayer... meaning that following the imam is obligatory in the physical actions of the prayer, not in its verbal utterances... Complete following (kamal al-mutaba'ah) is achieved when the follower's beginning of an action comes after the imam's beginning of that same action, while the follower's beginning of the action precedes the imam's completion of it" — end of quote, with slight paraphrasing.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on offering an Udhiyah on behalf of another with their permission?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible for a person to offer a sacrifice (Udhiyah) on behalf of someone else with their permission, even if the person performing it has not offered a sacrifice for themselves. It is stated in Sharh Manhaj al-Tullab (Vol.5/P.261) by Zakariya al-Ansari: "No one may offer a sacrifice on behalf of another without their permission... as opposed to when permission has been granted." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to participate in an Udhiyah?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Regarding the sacrificial offering (Udhiyah), if it is a sheep or a goat, it only avails for one person. However, if it is a cow or a camel, it avails for seven people. It is permissible for the seven participants to have different intentions; for example, some may intend the sacrifice (Udhiyah), some the ’Aqiqah (sacrifice for a newborn), and others may simply intend to obtain meat.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat Qalyubi ‘ala Sharh al-Mahalli (Vol.4/P.256) and in Bushra al-Karim (p. 706):
 
"If one slaughters a camel or a cow on behalf of seven... it is permissible. Likewise, it is permissible if some of them intend their seventh for meat, and others intend their seventh for ’Aqiqah." And Allah the Almighty knows best.