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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(306): "Ruling on Health Insurance"

Date Added : 13-07-2022

Resolution No.(306), By The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Health Insurance"

Date: (25th of Jumada Al Oula, 1443 AH), corresponding to (30/12/2021 AD).

 

In the name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

On its sixteenth meeting held on the above date, the Board of Iftaa`, Research, and Islamic Studies reviewed question No.(207233) sent to the electronic website of The General Iftaa` Department. It stated as follows: I work for a company of the private sector and we have optional health insurance. What is the ruling of Sharia on this health insurance taking into consideration that the company where I work deals with a conventional insurance company where an amount of 11JDs is deducted from an employee`s salary while the rest is covered by the employer?

After careful consideration, the Board decided what follows:

Health treatment is one of the necessities emphasized by the Maqasid of Sharia (Higher objectives of Sharia). Due to the progress accomplished in the field of medicine and the diversity of its techniques, meeting this need has become too expensive, so individuals couldn`t afford treatment and this negatively affected their health.

Since public need is ranked as a private necessity and the rules of Sharia rests on warding off harm and hardship, then it is permissible for an employee to have access to the services of medical insurance by virtue of his/her company having concluded a contract to that end with an insurance company. It is also permissible for an employee to include his/her dependents in those services as well. However, we advise employers to insure their employees with cooperative insurance companies that observe the standards of Sharia in this regard. And Allah The  Almighty Knows Best.

 Chairperson of Iftaa` Board

Grand Mufti of Jordan                     Dr. Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad al-Khalayleh

Dr. Mahmoud al-Sartawi/ Member         Dr. Majed al-Darawsheh/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Samer Al-Khobbaj/ Member               Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodaat/Member

Prof. Amjad Rasheed/Member

Dr. Jamil Khatatbeh/Member                               Dr. Mohammad Younis Al-Zou`bi/ Member

Dr. Ahmad al-Hasanat/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?

Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on ablution if vaginal discharge is expelled, and is it impure?

If these discharges exit from the external genitalia (apparent part of the vagina), they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution. If they exit from the internal part, they are impure and do invalidate ablution. If it is uncertain whether they are from the internal or external part, they are not impure and do not invalidate ablution.
 
The apparent part is what becomes visible when sitting, and what the husband's penis reaches during intercourse is considered part of the apparent. The internal part is what is beyond that. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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