I have a question regarding the deferred portion of the dowry (Mahr)*. Is the wife entitled to it only upon divorce or she can claim it even if divorce hasn`t taken place? Moreover, does she have the right to claim this portion after death of husband, even if he didn`t divorce her before that?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
In the marriage contract, it is recorded that the deferred portion of the dowry is due upon divorce or death, whatever comes first. If divorce took place first then the woman is entitled to it and if the husband died this amount must be paid from his estate. On the other hand, if the woman died then the husband becomes liable for this portion and it becomes part of the woman`s estate. We advise every husband to give this portion to his wife while alive because it is a right of hers. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* In Islam, a Mahr is the obligation, in the form of money or possessions paid by the groom, to the bride at the time of Islamic marriage (payment also has circumstances on when and how to pay). While the mahr is often money, it can also be anything agreed upon by the bride such as jewelry, home goods, furniture, a dwelling or some land. Mahr is typically specified in the marriage contract signed upon marriage.
Is it permissible for a woman who has become pure before the end of forty days of confinement to perform different acts of worship? and is it lawful for her husband to have sex with her?
Once postpartum bleeding ceases and she is certain that it won`t happen again, she becomes pure, and so she should perform Ghusl (ritual bath), pray, and fast. She can also have sex with her husband even before the end of (40) days because the minimum of postpartum bleeding is a moment, and the maximum is (60) days. However, the postpartum bleeding for the majority of women is (40) days, but this does not apply to rest of them.
What is the ruling on buying a car from someone for less than the market price, because they are in a hurry to travel and want to sell their belongings at a lower price due to their urgency?
Yes it is permissible; however, a Muslim shouldn't take advantage of other's difficult situations.
Is it permissible for a Muslim to slaughter an Aqeeqah on behalf of someone else, and offer it to him as a gift?
In principle, the guardian is the one who should offer the Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth) because he is obliged to provide for the newborn, and it is impermissible for anyone else to slaughter it on his behalf unless with his consent. However, it is permissible for a person to offer the sheep, or its price as a gift to the guardian of the newborn, and then the latter can slaughter it, or deputies someone else to do that on his behalf.
