Is it permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah after the death of her husband to exchange calls with her relatives and husband`s family call?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is permissible for the woman who is observing Iddah* after death of husband to exchange calls with them; however, when she speaks to non-Mahrams , she shouldn`t be soft of speech and she should be straight to the point. This because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzaab/32]. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
[1] The iddah is a waiting period that a Muslim woman observes after the death of her husband or after a divorce. The Quran says: For those men who die amongst you and leave behind wives, they (the wives) must confine themselves (spend iddah) for four months and ten days.
A person vowed to slaughter a sacrificial animal. Is he permitted to eat from it?
If the vowed sacrificial animal was for the sake of Allah, and the one who vowed didn't specify then its meat should be distributed only among the poor and needy similar to distributing Zakah of Al-Fiter so neither him nor his dependents permitted to eat from; however if his vow was to made a banquet and invititing his relatives and others; then he must bring up as much as he can from its meat for them. In addition, he is permitted to eat from it in a reasonable basis. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
Is it permissible for a wife to give her money to her family as a charity, or a gift without asking her husband, or seeking his consent?
The wife has the right to give her money as a charity, or a gift to her family, or to other people after consulting her husband out of respect, and this is the meaning of treating on footing of kindness and equity. Therefore, if he wanted to stop her from helping her family, then there is no harm in not telling him.
