My husband wanted to sell a piece of land that was his own, but his father insisted that he transfer the land in his (the father’s) name so that he could sell it at a higher price. Then, my husband and his father would split the price. After my father-in-law sold the land, he denied everything and refused to acknowledge my husband’s right. My father-in-law passed away a year ago, and my husband’s brothers divided the inheritance, refusing to acknowledge that this land was a trust held by their father for my husband until it was sold. Are they sinful for knowingly denying that the land belongs to my husband, and what is the ruling on praying against them?
All perfect praise be to Alalh, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Among the rights of the deceased upon their heirs are: preparing them for burial at death, settling their debts, returning people’s rights to them, executing their will, and then dividing their estate. What was mentioned in the question falls under the rights of others, even if they are among the heirs, and the deceased is not absolved of it unless it is returned to its rightful owners. This is because Allah, Almighty, forbids consuming others' wealth/properties unjustly. However, do not give up on seeking a solution by involving righteous and well - respected individuals who may have influence over them, in the hope that Allah guides them to goodness and correctness. As for supplicating against them, the prayer of the oppressed is not rejected, even if the oppressed person is not a Muslim. And Allah knows best.
Is Buying a house in installments through banks?
Taking a loan from interest-based banks is prohibited and considered a major sin. Instead Getting a loan from Islamic banks is considered Murabaha and can be used as an alternative, provided all the necessary Islamic conditions are met. And Allah Knows Best.
Is ablution invalidated when blood comes out of the nose, or a wound?
Blood coming out of the nose, or a wound does not invalidate ablution, but it is preferable to make ablution as a way out of the scholars disagreement in this regard.
What is the ruling on someone who perform their prayer after finishing it because they believe they missed a Rak'a, a prostration, or that they did not perform it correctly (thinking their prayer was invalid)?
If he was sure that his prayer is void then reperforming it is an obligation along with figuring out the reason of invalidity so long as this wasn't out of uncertainty. And Allah Knows Best.
