What is the ruling on someone who perform their prayer after finishing it because they believe they missed a Rak'a, a prostration, or that they did not perform it correctly (thinking their prayer was invalid)?
If he was sure that his prayer is void then reperforming it is an obligation along with figuring out the reason of invalidity so long as this wasn't out of uncertainty. And Allah Knows Best.
Does fasting on behalf of a deceased person permissible?
Fasting on belhaf of a deceased person is permissible, since the Prophet (PBUH) said: "Whoever dies while he still has some fasts to make up (of the days of Ramadan), then his heir (any of them) should fast on his behalf." [Agreed upon]. The previous answer is for making up missed obligatory fasts on behalf of the deceased. But if the fasting on behlaf of the deceased was for performing a voluntary acts of devotion such as fasting....is permissible as adopted by the majority of Muslim scholars and based on the above hadith as they stated "Every good dead intended to be on behalf of the deceased its reward will reach the latter." And Allah Knows Best.
Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.
During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
