It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
Is Making up Missed Obligatory Prayers an Obligation?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
Missed obligatory prayer/prayers is a debt upon Muslim and making it up is an obligation, since the Prophet (PBUH) said: "pay the debt due to God, for it is the one which most deserves to be paid." [Agreed upon]. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for me to name my first son “Kassim” ?
The Prophet (PBUH) prohibited combining his name and his nickname, but using one of them is desirable.
If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?
If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best.
