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Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani Appointed as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 28-11-2023

Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani Appointed as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department

 

 

The Grand Mufti and the staff of the General Iftaa` Department extend their warmest congratulations to Dr. Zaid Ibrahim Al-Kilani on the occasion of the Cabinet's decision to appoint him as the Secretary-General of the General Iftaa` Department.

 

We ask Allah the Almighty for guidance and success to him and us.

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Summarized Fatawaa

When does the time for the 'aqīqah lapse and pass?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
If the guardian was financially capable (mūsir) during the majority of the postnatal period (nifās) — which is sixty days — then the obligation of the 'aqīqah remains upon him until the child reaches the age of maturity (bulūgh). Once the child reaches maturity, the demand falls away from the father and those like him. At that point, it becomes Sunnah for the child himself to perform the 'aqīqah on his own behalf.
However, if the guardian was financially incapable (mu'sir) during the postnatal period, and then became financially capable after its expiry — that is, after sixty days — the 'aqīqah is no longer required of him. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Does post-natal bleeding (Nifas) stop before forty days after childbirth?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Yes, post-natal bleeding (Nifas) can cease before the completion of forty days. If the bleeding stops completely and its return is not expected, the woman has attained ritual purity (Taharah), even if forty days have not yet passed. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).