What is the ruling of Sharia on male doctor delivering a baby?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The person most entitled to deliver a baby is a Muslim woman, then a woman from the People of the Book, then a woman from the disbelievers, then a Muslim man, then a man from the People of the Book. However, if there was no woman to deliver the baby, then it is permissible for a male doctor do deliver it. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
I am pregnant with four twins since two months although I didn't have childbearing potential during the last four years. In addition, the doctor specialized in reprusccusions, already has notified me about the possible reprusccusions as a result of being pregnant with four twins as follows: abortion, Metrorrhagia, Premature birth, high blood pressure, gestational diabetes and the like. What is the ruling on aborting some of the aforementioned embryos? A medical report was attached in which the status of my question is clarified.
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
If the existence of the four embryos leads to critical reprusccusions/or threat on mother's health, life or a possibility of aborting all of them, then aborting one/two/three is permissible mitigate the above mentioned risks so long as the ages of the embryos don't exceed four months. And Allah Knows Best.
Is a Muslim is Permitted to Pray Wearing Shoes?
All perfect praise be to Allah The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions There is no harm for a Muslim to pray wearing shoes or slippers so long as they are pure, since a man asked Anas Ibn Malik: "Did the Prophet (PBUH) use to offer the prayers with his shoes on?" He said: "Yes." Moreover, Ibn Rajab (May Allah have mercy on his soul) said: "Performing prayer wearing slippers/shoes is permissible according the majority of the Muslim scholars." [Fatih Al-Bary,vol.2/pp.274]. And Allah Knows Best.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
