Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
Is buying shared land from someone who has taken possession of it considered halal or haram?
The shared land is possessed by the country i.e. for all people; therefore, it shouldn't be possessed/occupied save by it's guardian/owner permission,thusly it can't be possessed save by having owners' permission. Finally, buying it from a person who don't possess it is impermissible. And Allah Knows Best.
What is meant by "Recalcitrance of the woman toward her husband doesn`t render her divorced"?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It means that her being recalcitrant (Nashiz) doesn`t make her divorced. Rather, she has to be divorced by husband or Sharia judge to be considered divorced. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Does ill-gotten money hinder the answering of the Du`a (supplication) and the means of subsistence?
Sins hinder the answering of the Du`a, and deprive the sinner from means of subsistence; whereas, acts of obedience facilitate making a living. Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means) : "And for those who fear God, He (ever) prepares a way out. And He provides for him from (sources) he never could imagine." [At-Talaq/2-3].