It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
Is it permissible for the big brother to force his sisters to wear Hijjab (Islamic wear) if their father didn`t do his part in this regard ?
All Perfect Praise is due to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds
The father`s attention should be drawn gently and politely, and the sisters should also be reminded with good words since Allah, The Almighty, Says (What means): "O ye who believe! Save yourselves and your families from a Fire whose fuel is Men and Stones." [Al-Tahreem/6]. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a wife to leave her house without obtaining the permission of her husband, and not to come back unless he divorces her co-wife?
It is forbidden for the wife to leave without obtaining her husband`s permission, and it is impermissible for her to ask him to divorce her co-wife as this inflicts harm on the latter and such an act is forbidden in Islamic law.
Is Zakah (obligatory charity) due on the Zakah money received by a poor person, and reached a Nissab (minimum amount liable for Zakah), and a whole lunar year had lapsed over having it in his possession?
Yes, the poor who possessed a Nissab for a whole lunar year is obliged to pay the Zakah due on that money even if it was given to him as a Zakah money in the first place. And Allah Knows Best.
