Is it permissible for a father to divide his property amongst his children except one under the pretext that he has paid for the latter`s tuition? This is knowing that his other children were given the opportunity to pursue their education but didn`t because they were educationally poor. Moreover, is he allowed to give his other children who have helped him with growing his business?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The father should be just between his children as regards gifts, in case they had similar circumstances. However, if any had a special merit, then it is permissible for the father to take that into account to be just. For example, giving his children who have helped in making his fortune and received no reward for that or giving the little ones because they haven`t taken as much as the older ones or giving the sick child who is unable to make a living. The most important thing is achieving justice. Moreover, the father is not interdicted by any of his children, and he is free to do whatever he wants with his money and Allah will call him to account as regards observing justice between his children. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
What is the ruling on not fulfilling a vow?
A vow is a commitment towards Allah, The Almighty, and so, it should be observed as much as possible, and it is impermissible to take it lightly. Allah, The Exalted, Says –in commending the believers (What means): "(Because) they perform the vow and fear a day whereof the evil is wide-spreading." [Al-Insan/7].
A woman didn't fufill fasting of the month of Ramadan two years ago, due to pregnancy and breastfeeding, at the time being she is making up the missed Ramadan. What is the ruling of Sharia? And what is due on her?
Whosoever break the fast during Ramadan or didn't fast at all due to health concerns, is obliged to make up the missed fasts whenever she could so long as making up missed Ramadan didn't extend to the coming one, and if next one arrived without fulling fasting the missed one, the ransom is 60 grams for each missed day (Equals 60 piasters to one Dinar for each day). And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
