Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.
I work at a company that provides cash advances of 800 dinars, 1000 dinars, or 1200 dinars, depending on the employee’s years of service. An administrative fee of 40 dinars is deducted from the amount in the first month, and the remaining amount is repaid in installments. What is the ruling on this, knowing that the deducted amount (40 dinars) is fixed?
We fear that the deducted amount may be a means of circumventing interest (Riba). If the deducted amount is equal to or less than the actual administrative expenses, then there is no issue, as some scholars permit the borrower to bear the costs of documenting and managing the loan. However, piety suggests refraining from taking this loan under these conditions, as dealing with private individuals and companies is not the same as dealing with the state, which spends from the public treasury. And Allah Knows Best.
Does passing wind, from the anus without a smell, invalidate prayer?
If a person is certain of having passed wind even if it was with no smell, then both his/her ablution and prayer are invalidated, thus he/she should remake ablution and re-perform prayer.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
