It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
I`m getting old and haven`t got married yet. I love wearing the veil, but people advised me to take it off because it could stand in the way of my marriage, and that I should wear it after getting married, what should I do?
The veil (face drape) is the wear of the Prophet`s (PBUH) wives and righteous female companions (May Allah be pleased with them) and whoever imitates a certain group of people shall receive the same reward or punishment like themselves. Only those who are religiously poor deny women wearing the veil, and thinking that it stops a woman from getting married is from the evil suggestions of the devil.
What is the ruling of Sharia on a Muslim woman who committed Zina with a Christian and became pregnant as a result?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Abortion is forbidden in Islam as it entails taking the life of a soul unjustly. Rather, it is one of the major sins; however, it is permissible only when there is well-established danger on the mother`s life; in which situation scholars gave priority to her life over that of the foetus, since this is, according to Sharia: "The lesser of two evils". In case a Muslim woman committed Zina (Adultery) with a Christian and got pregnant, if this did happen, then this question should be presented to the Iftaa` Committee with the presence of the questioner herself. She could also ask a reliable scholar face to face or via phone. If she gives birth to the baby, then he/she is a Muslim and takes the name of his mother; not the name of the man who was a reason for its conception. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
There is a car dealership, and their method of selling is as follows: The customer pays the full price of the car, the car is registered in their name, and another contract is written in which the company commits to refunding the full price of the car to the customer after one year from the purchase date. What is the Islamic ruling on this transaction?
As for purchasing the car, paying its price, and owning it, this is a valid sale with no issue. However, the condition of refunding the price — whether the car is returned to the seller or not — is an invalid condition that nullifies the entire contract. Therefore, this transaction is invalid and not permissible. And Allah Knows Best.
