During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
I`m a cashier at a branch of the Civil Service Consumer Corporation. Sometimes, customers pay more than the due amount. Do I have the right to take that extra money knowing that I cover shortages from my own salary?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May Allah`s peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
If customers give that money willingly to help you with the potential loss then this is permissible. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a person, who vowed to offer two Rak`ahs (units of prayer) everyday for Allah`s sake, to do so after the Fajr (dawn) prayer?
In principle, a vow should be fulfilled as it was originally intended, and if its time lapses then, it should be fulfilled at any time because of the vow. Therefore, it is permissible to offer them after the Fajr prayer, and there is no prohibition in doing so. However, it is preferable for him to offer these two Rak`ahs at some other time to avoid the disagreement amongst the scholars in this regard.
Is It Permissible to Divorce One's Wife for not Praying
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You should do your best to save her from hellfire by making her observe daily prayers on their prescribed times, even if this means giving her a generous incentive. However, if she insisted on her position, then it is permissible for you to divorce her. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.