It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
I missed fasting 30 days of the obligatory fast within the last 6 years and 20 days. How do I fast? And what should I do?
Missed fasting days must be made up, and it is permissible to make them up on non-consecutive days, as continuity is not required for making up missed fasts. Additionally, expiation (Fidya) must be given: feeding one needy person for each day if the makeup is delayed for one year. If the delay extends to two years, Fidya must be given to two needy people per day, and so on. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible to slaughter one animal as a sacrifice and an Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth)?
It is impermissible to do so since each of them is slaughtered for a different reason.
Should one obey his mother even if she was wrong?
Obeying one`s mother is an obligation in matters that are beneficial to her and so long as she didn't drive her children to commit an act of sin.
