Do certain vaginal discharges and incontinence of urine nullify ablution, and should underwear be changed?
A person afflicted with constant impurity due to urinary incontinence and vaginal discharges is obliged to make ablution for every obligatory prayer when its time is due, and after removing Najaasah (impurity), and wearing a clean diaper. He/she is obliged to pray immediately even if the impurity is being released, and he/she is obliged to remake ablution, and the aforementioned for every obligatory prayer.
What is the ruling on eating the food prepared by Christians friends knowing that their income comes from trading in alcoholic drinks?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It isn`t allowed to have the food of the person whose source of income is unlawful. However, if it is a mixture of lawful and unlawful, then it is permissible to have their food. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
We collect funds from mosques and other sources, saying: "For the poor, the needy, widows, orphans, and those who do not beg insistently." After paying the stipends of the families registered with the Zakat Committee, an amount exceeding 6,000 dinars remained. Is it permissible for me to save it for upcoming months when I may not be able to collect the stipends?
These funds are received by the committee as representatives of the zakat payers to deliver zakat to those entitled to it. It is well-known that delaying zakat while being able to pay it is not permissible. Imam Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "Zakat must be paid immediately if one is able to do so, by the presence of wealth and the eligible categories." [Al-Minhaj] Therefore, the committee must distribute the zakat to the eligible recipients without installment payments or using it to purchase material goods for them, as the committee does not have authority over the poor to allocate it in this way. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
