It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
What is the ruling on making up for missed fasting after the second half of Sha`ban (the month before Ramadhaan)?
One is obliged to make up for missed fasting before the start of next Ramadhaan, and regardless of offering it during the first, or the second half of Shab`an. This is because the prohibition mentioned in the Hadith is for offering absolute voluntary fasting in the second half of Sha`ban. And Allah Knows Best.
I work for a company whose manager refuses to allow employees to leave during work hours. Do I incur sin if I secretly went out to join the congregation at the Masjid? Is doing so considered a breach of trust?
Praise be to the Lord of the Worlds.
We recommend that you pray at work to encourage your colleagues to follow suit, because whoever guides to good has the like of the reward of the person who actually does it. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?
It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.
