What is the ruling of Sharia on using IUD (Intrauterine device) temporarily and by mutual agreement of husband and wife?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
There is nothing wrong with this if this device is used on temporary basis and by mutual agreement of husband and wife since this issue falls into family planning, which is allowed by Sharia. However, this is provided that the device is inserted by a female doctor and that it doesn`t cause harm to the woman. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
My husband told me that he concluded our marriage with a fake name that belongs to another person, because he was sentenced. Nowadays, he recieved an ID, passport and birth certificate with the his current name. What is the ruling on being married to him?
Praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions. As regards being married to the person mentioned in your question: The marriage is valid so long as he was the same person your guardian concluded the marriage with, even if he changed his name i.e. if your marriage contract was concluded with the same person, since what counts regarding marriage is the persons not names. And Allah Knows Best.
I underwent a procedure for a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole), and after that, the bleeding continued for more than two months, during which I did not pray. Do I need to make up the missed prayers?
If you have previously experienced postpartum bleeding, the duration of the current bleeding is treated the same as your previous postpartum period. Any bleeding that exceeds this duration must be considered irregular bleeding (istihada), and you must make up the missed prayers. If this is the first time, then any bleeding beyond sixty days is considered irregular bleeding. You must perform ghusl, pray, and make up the prayers for the days beyond the sixty-day limit. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
