What is the ruling of Sharia on a Muslim woman who committed Zina with a Christian and became pregnant as a result?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Abortion is forbidden in Islam as it entails taking the life of a soul unjustly. Rather, it is one of the major sins; however, it is permissible only when there is well-established danger on the mother`s life; in which situation scholars gave priority to her life over that of the foetus, since this is, according to Sharia: "The lesser of two evils". In case a Muslim woman committed Zina (Adultery) with a Christian and got pregnant, if this did happen, then this question should be presented to the Iftaa` Committee with the presence of the questioner herself. She could also ask a reliable scholar face to face or via phone. If she gives birth to the baby, then he/she is a Muslim and takes the name of his mother; not the name of the man who was a reason for its conception. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible to delay menses by using medication in order to fast Ramadhaan?
It is permissible for a woman to use medication in order to delay her menses so that it becomes eligible for fasting Ramadhaan, but it is better that she doesn`t do so, and taking the medication is prohibited if she, or her doctors knew that it involves risk on her health. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?
If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best.
