Is it permissible for a person, who vowed to offer two Rak`ahs (units of prayer) everyday for Allah`s sake, to do so after the Fajr (dawn) prayer?
In principle, a vow should be fulfilled as it was originally intended, and if its time lapses then, it should be fulfilled at any time because of the vow. Therefore, it is permissible to offer them after the Fajr prayer, and there is no prohibition in doing so. However, it is preferable for him to offer these two Rak`ahs at some other time to avoid the disagreement amongst the scholars in this regard.
What is the authenticity of the supplication: "O Allah, bring it upon us with blessings and faith, safety and Islam, and success in what You love and are pleased with. My Lord and your Lord is Allah"?
On the authority of Talhah Ibn Ubayd Allah (may Allah be pleased with him) who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) would say when he saw the crescent moon: "O Allah, let this moon appear over us with blessings and faith, safety and Islam. My Lord and your Lord is Allah."
This was narrated by Tirmidhi (Hadith no. 3451), who said: "It is a Hasan (good) Hadith."
And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
I went to the health center today to take an intramuscular injection of Neurorubin B12. The nurse told me that this type of injection breaks the fast because it nourishes the body. Is this true? I have heard that intramuscular injections do not break the fast, but I was unsure about this type, so I decided not to take the injection.
Therapeutic injections administered subcutaneously or intramuscularly do not invalidate the fast because they do not enter the digestive tract through an open passage. However, intravenous injections containing nutritional fluids do break the fast, as they are akin to food and drink in effect. The B12 injection is a therapeutic injection and does not break the fast. And Allah Knows Best.
I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
