Is a woman`s voice 'Awrah even when praising the Prophet (PBUH) via satellite channels?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
The Sharia term 'Awrah has two meanings:-
First: `Awrah that invalidates prayer when uncovered, and in this sense a woman`s voice isn`t considered `awrah. Second: `Awrah that causes men to be tempted by women and vice versa. Moreover, if a woman`s voice is soft or alluring, then it is forbidden for her to speak deliberately before strange men. This is because Almighty Allah Says (What means): "O ye wives of the Prophet! Ye are not like any other women. If ye keep your duty (to Allah), then be not soft of speech, lest he in whose heart is a disease aspire (to you), but utter customary speech." [Al-Ahzab/32]. However, a man should avoid listening whatever incites his desires. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Should Al-Basmalah (i.e. saying Bismillaaahi Ar-Rahmaani Ar-Raheemi) be recited after Takbeerat Al-Ihram (saying Allahuakbar) which marks the beginning of prayer?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds A praying person is obliged to recite Al-Basmalah at the beginning of Chapter Al-Faatihah, and in every Rak`ah (unit of prayer) because it is a verse of it. And Allah Knows Best.
After a month and a half from the end of postpartum bleeding, my wife occasionally finds a small amount of blood, and she is breastfeeding. What is this blood, and should she fast and pray when she experiences it?
This is postpartum bleeding, so she should not fast or pray until she sees the signs of purity, unless it exceeds sixty days, as the maximum duration for postpartum bleeding is sixty days, and the majority of women experience forty days. If it exceeds sixty days, it is considered irregular bleeding (Istihada). It would be advisable to consult a doctor after the sixty days. And Allah Knows Best.
Someone asked me to pay off his debt on his behalf as a loan, without any compensation. When I went to the creditor, he told me that if I paid the full amount at once, rather than in installments, he would give me a certain discount. Is this permissible? And if he applies the discount, to whom does the deducted amount belong?
If part of the debt is paid and the creditor forgives the remaining amount, the waiver is valid, and the remaining debt is no longer the responsibility of the original debtor. The person who paid the debt on behalf of another has no right to claim any portion of the original debt. And Allah Knows Best.
