In the last verse of Surah At-Tin, Allah Says (What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. Is it permissible for us, while performing congregational prayer, to respond after the Imam recites it by saying: "Indeed, and I am among those who bear witness to that." ?
It is recommended for the worshipper to say 'Indeed' (Bala) silently after reciting or hearing the verse (/What means): "Is Allah not the most just of judges?" [At-Tin/8]. This is part of reflecting on the Quran during its recitation or listening, as Allah Says (What means): "Then do they not reflect upon the Quran, or are there locks upon [their] hearts?" (Muhammad: 24). Doing so helps in achieving humility and focus in prayer. And Allah Knows Best
If the fasting of nine years has accumulated upon me, I wish to make them up by dividing them over several years, as it is difficult to fast them all in one year due to their large number. Consequently, expiation will be due on me. Is it permissible to pay the expiation after completing all the make-up fasts, even if it takes years?
If the fasting was broken due to a valid legal excuse, it is permissible to divide the make-up fasts over several years based on one’s ability. However, if a person passes away before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must fast on their behalf or feed one needy person for each missed day.
If the fasting was broken without a valid excuse, one must hasten to make it up. Should the person die before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must either fast or feed the needy on their behalf. As for the expiation, it is calculated after completing all the make-up fasts. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling on a woman driving a car?
All Perfect Praise is to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessinsg be upn our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and compnions.
It is permissible for the woman to drive a car, but it is impermissible for her to travel unaccompanied by a Mahram (Unmarriageable kin). And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.
If someone bought a car from an interest-based bank and then sold it to another person, does the second person bear any sin if they use the car's price to pay the installments owed to the bank?
When the buyer purchased the car, it became their property, and the price became their responsibility. The bank acts as the seller's agent for receiving the payment. Therefore, there is no sin on the second buyer, God willing, as long as the bank does not impose an increase in the amount if a payment is delayed. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
