Is it permissible for a woman to use a contraceptive without telling her husband although he wants to have as many children as possible and she can`t care for them?
All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds, may His Blessings and Peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
If the pregnancy is harmful to the woman, it is permissible for her to use a contraceptive; however, this has to be backed by a medical report from a God-fearing doctor. In addition, you had better inform your of what you are doing to avoid dispute. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a person who is in a state of Janabah (Ritual impurity) to clip his nails, or to cut his hair?
It is permissible for those in a state of Janabah and menstruation to clip their nails and to shave whatever hair that is permissible to be shaved. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after her husband's death to leave her house and mix with non-Mahrams?
It is not permissible for a woman in her waiting period (Iddah) after the death of her husband to leave her house except for a necessity, such as for medical treatment, nor is she allowed to mix with non-Mahrams. A woman is not permitted to mix with anyone other than her husband or Mahrams, whether she is in her waiting period or not. However, there is no harm in accepting condolences from those who visit and responding to their inquiries about her well-being. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling of Sharia on a Muslim woman who committed Zina with a Christian and became pregnant as a result?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Abortion is forbidden in Islam as it entails taking the life of a soul unjustly. Rather, it is one of the major sins; however, it is permissible only when there is well-established danger on the mother`s life; in which situation scholars gave priority to her life over that of the foetus, since this is, according to Sharia: "The lesser of two evils". In case a Muslim woman committed Zina (Adultery) with a Christian and got pregnant, if this did happen, then this question should be presented to the Iftaa` Committee with the presence of the questioner herself. She could also ask a reliable scholar face to face or via phone. If she gives birth to the baby, then he/she is a Muslim and takes the name of his mother; not the name of the man who was a reason for its conception. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
