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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(92): “Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(92) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date: 28/6/1426 AH, corresponding to 48/2005

 

 

Question: Is a woman`s travel to a country, or from it without a Mahram (i.e. a husband or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations) forbidden or not, and what is the ruling when she resides-without a Mahram-in the country where she works?

Answer: Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In principle, it is forbidden for a woman to travel-or reside in a country- without a husband, or a Mahram for a distance longer than that allowed in case of shortening prayers. This is based on the Hadith of Ibn Umar who reported that the prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not travel for more than three days except with a Dhi-Mahram (i.e. a male with whom she cannot marry at all, e.g. her brother, father, grandfather, etc.) or her own husband.“ {Bukhari & Muslim}. Also for the Hadith of Abu-Hurairah who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for one day and night except with a Mahram." {Bukhari & Muslim}.

Moreover, Abu-Sa`eid  reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not go on a two day journey except with her husband or a Dhi-Mahram.” {Mukhari & Muslim}. However, the majority of Muslim scholars have agreed that it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, or her husband in the following situations:

1-  Fleeing a war zone to a peaceful country.

2-  Fearing for herself.

3-  Captivity, then  managing to escape.

4-  Paying off a debt and returning a deposit.

5-  Abandoning the state of recalcitrance.

6- Obligation to observe Iddah (waiting period) due to death of husband, or Ba`ien divorce while travelling. In this case, she should return to her home.

The Iftaa` Board is of the view that a woman is allowed to travel without a husband, or a Mahram for a legitimate cause, if her travel meets the following conditions:

1- The road is safe.

2- No temptations are involved.

3- Travelling with God-fearing group of women.

4- Adherence to Islamic wear, morals and etiquette.

5- Using public means of transportation while accompanied by trustful women.

6- Staying with God-fearing and righteous group of women.

This is indicated by the Hadith of Adi Bin Hatim who said: “While I was in the city of the Prophet, a man came and complained to him (the Prophet) of destitution and poverty. Then another man came and complained of robbery (by highwaymen). he (PBUH), said: "Adi! Have you been to Al-Hira?" I said: "I haven't been to it, but I was informed about it." And he (PBUH) said (What means): "If you should live for a long time, you will certainly see that a lady in a Howdah traveling from Al-Hira will (safely reach Mecca and) perform the Tawaf of the Ka'ba, fearing none but Allah” {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Izzaldeen At-Tamimi

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen   Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri     Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid   Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

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Summarized Fatawaa

Does vomiting during the day in Ramadan break the fast?

Intentional vomiting is one of the nullifiers of fasting; whoever vomits deliberately breaks their fast.
However, if vomiting occurs involuntarily, the fast remains valid as long as nothing returns to the body cavity (jauf). If anything is swallowed back, the fast is invalidated.
The Prophet ﷺ said: "Whoever is overcome by vomiting does not have to make up the fast, but whoever induces vomiting deliberately must make it up." [Narrated by Abu Dawood and At-Tirmidhi]

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who purchases a sacrificial animal (uḍḥiyah) and it then develops a defect before slaughter?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a defect that invalidates the sacrifice (uḍḥiyah) arises after its purchase — for example, if one purchased a sound, defect-free animal, and it then developed a limp, blindness in one eye, or a similar defect before slaughter — it does not fulfill the requirement of a valid uḍḥiyah, according to the Shāfi'ī school.
It is stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib fī Sharḥ Rawḍ al-Ṭālib (Vol.1/P.535): "Even if the limp develops [in the animal] while the knife is upon it, it still does not fulfill the requirement, because it is lame at the moment of slaughter — this is analogous to a case where a sheep's leg breaks and one hastens to slaughter it [in that condition]."
The Ḥanbalī school, however, held that if the one offering the sacrifice purchased the animal while it was sound and defect-free, and a defect then befell it afterward, the sacrifice remains valid and there is no obligation to replace it.
It is stated in Masā'il al-Imām Aḥmad, one of the Ḥanbalī reference works (Vol.8/P.4021): "I said: If a person purchases the sacrificial animal while it is sound, and it is then afflicted with illness, blindness in one eye, or a broken limb [before slaughter]? He [Imam Aḥmad] said: It is said that it still fulfills the requirement. Isḥāq said likewise, because he purchased it while sound, and the defect befell it only afterward, so it remains sufficient on his behalf." [End of quote]
Accordingly, a sheep afflicted with a defect that invalidates the sacrifice does not fulfill the requirement of a valid uḍḥiyah — whether the defect arose after purchase or during the slaughter itself — according to the Shāfi'ī school. However, there is no objection to following the Ḥanbalī position on this matter [as a valid alternative]. And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a latecomer who joins the imam during the standing position of the first rakʿah but was unable to complete the recitation of al-Fātiḥah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If a latecomer (masbuq) joins the prayer while the imam is standing, he should begin reciting Sūrat al-Fātiḥah immediately, without pausing to recite the opening supplication (duʿāʾ al-istiftāḥ) or the seeking of refuge (taʿawwudh). If the imam bows before he completes al-Fātiḥah, he follows the imam into the bow and leaves whatever remains of al-Fātiḥah — the imam bears it on his behalf.
It is stated in ʿUmdat al-Sālik (p. 47): "If a latecomer finds the imam standing and is confident that he has enough time to recite the taʿawwudh and al-Fātiḥah in full, he may do so. If he is uncertain, he should neither recite the opening supplication nor the taʿawwudh, but rather begin directly with al-Fātiḥah. If the imam bows before he completes it, he follows him into the bow — provided he had not already begun the opening supplication or the taʿawwudh. If he had begun either of them, he continues reciting al-Fātiḥah for as long as he spent on them." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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