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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(92): “Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

Resolution No.(92) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

“Ruling on a Woman`s Travel without a Mahram“

Date: 28/6/1426 AH, corresponding to 48/2005

 

 

Question: Is a woman`s travel to a country, or from it without a Mahram (i.e. a husband or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations) forbidden or not, and what is the ruling when she resides-without a Mahram-in the country where she works?

Answer: Praise be to Allah; and may His blessings and peace be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

In principle, it is forbidden for a woman to travel-or reside in a country- without a husband, or a Mahram for a distance longer than that allowed in case of shortening prayers. This is based on the Hadith of Ibn Umar who reported that the prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not travel for more than three days except with a Dhi-Mahram (i.e. a male with whom she cannot marry at all, e.g. her brother, father, grandfather, etc.) or her own husband.“ {Bukhari & Muslim}. Also for the Hadith of Abu-Hurairah who reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to travel for one day and night except with a Mahram." {Bukhari & Muslim}.

Moreover, Abu-Sa`eid  reported that the Prophet (PBUH) said: “A woman should not go on a two day journey except with her husband or a Dhi-Mahram.” {Mukhari & Muslim}. However, the majority of Muslim scholars have agreed that it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, or her husband in the following situations:

1-  Fleeing a war zone to a peaceful country.

2-  Fearing for herself.

3-  Captivity, then  managing to escape.

4-  Paying off a debt and returning a deposit.

5-  Abandoning the state of recalcitrance.

6- Obligation to observe Iddah (waiting period) due to death of husband, or Ba`ien divorce while travelling. In this case, she should return to her home.

The Iftaa` Board is of the view that a woman is allowed to travel without a husband, or a Mahram for a legitimate cause, if her travel meets the following conditions:

1- The road is safe.

2- No temptations are involved.

3- Travelling with God-fearing group of women.

4- Adherence to Islamic wear, morals and etiquette.

5- Using public means of transportation while accompanied by trustful women.

6- Staying with God-fearing and righteous group of women.

This is indicated by the Hadith of Adi Bin Hatim who said: “While I was in the city of the Prophet, a man came and complained to him (the Prophet) of destitution and poverty. Then another man came and complained of robbery (by highwaymen). he (PBUH), said: "Adi! Have you been to Al-Hira?" I said: "I haven't been to it, but I was informed about it." And he (PBUH) said (What means): "If you should live for a long time, you will certainly see that a lady in a Howdah traveling from Al-Hira will (safely reach Mecca and) perform the Tawaf of the Ka'ba, fearing none but Allah” {Bukhari}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Izzaldeen At-Tamimi

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen   Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri     Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid   Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

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Summarized Fatawaa

I`m infatuated with a man, is it permissible for me to make supplication that he falls in love with me and becomes my husband?

Islam has honored women by being proposed to by men, and not the other way around, so it is inappropriate for a woman to propose to a man since one who hastens in asking for a thing prematurely shall be punished by deprivation. In fact, such a phenomenon is the result of unlawful mixing between the two sexes.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

Should the Zakah (obligatory charity) giver tell the poor recipient that this is the Zakah of his money?

No, he shouldn`t. But, the Zakah giver should make an intention in his heart that it is the Zakah of his money when paying it to the poor. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on swallowing saliva while fasting?

It is permissible for a fasting person to swallow their saliva because avoiding it would cause undue hardship and excessive strictness in religion. Islam discourages such excessiveness since Allah the Almighty intends ease for His followers and does not intend to put them in hardship.

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