What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.
What is the ruling on using a miswak (tooth-stick) during the day in Ramadan?
It is permissible to use a miswak before noon while fasting. However, according to the Shafi'i school, it is disliked (makruh) after noon in order to preserve the natural effect of fasting in the mouth, as the Prophetﷺ said in authentic hadith:
"The breath of a fasting person is more pleasant to Allah than the fragrance of musk."
What is the ruling on reciting the Noble Qur’an during menstruation?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is impermissible for a woman in menses, a woman in postnatal bleeding, or a person in a state of major ritual impurity to recite any part of the Noble Qur’an with the intention of recitation, even from a mobile phone or a computer, and even if the recitation is from memory. It is narrated on the authority of ʿAlī ibn Abī Ṭālib (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) “was not prevented, or he said kept back, from the Qur’an by anything except janābah (major ritual impurity).” It was narrated by Abū Dāwūd and al-Tirmidhī, who said: “Ḥasan ṣaḥīḥ.”
Janābah and menstruation are one and the same in that both constitute a major ritual impurity. Just as a woman is commanded by Allah Almighty to pray, fast, and recite the Noble Qur’an during her period of purity, she is likewise commanded to refrain from these during the period of her excuse.
For further reference, see the fatwas: (Fatwas of Shaykh Nūḥ, Fatwa no. 27) and (
248). And Allah Almighty knows best.
When does the time of Isha' prayer end?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds It ends at the emergence of true Fajr (Fajr Al-Sadiq ), and when the second Athaan of Fajr starts.And Allah Knows Best.
