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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(256): "Ruling on Proving Lineage of Child Born out of Wedlock"

Date Added : 15-05-2018

Resolution No.(256)(9 /2018) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Proving Lineage of Child Born out of Wedlock"

Date: 3/Sha`ban/1439 AH, corresponding to 19/4/2018 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its fifth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the letter sent from Mr. Hussein Al-Qaisi, Chairman of the House of Deputies` Legal Committee, and it read as follows: Could you clarify the ruling of Sharia on attributing the child born out of wedlock, in rape cases, to rapist if definite scientific methods have proven that?

After deliberating, the Board decided to ask the House of Deputies to rephrase article (157) of the Civil Status Law No.(36)/2010, to read as follows:

1- A child`s lineage to father is proven by wedlock, confusedness of sexual intercourse, father`s confession or the existence of a proof.

2- The court has the right to prove lineage by resorting to definitive scientific methods with observing the rulings of proving lineage by wedlock. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Judge Khalid Wuraikat,    Member

Dr. Mohammad al-zou`bi, Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible to pay the Zakah (obligatory charity) for settling the debt of a deceased relative?

It is impermissible to pay the Zakah for settling the debt of the deceased since Zakah is paid to eligible recipients who are alive. As for the debts of the deceased, they are to be settled from the estate before dividing it amongst the heirs, but if the deceased didn`t leave an estate, then it is desirable for his/her heirs to settle those debts if they can afford them. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it permissible to sacrifice imported livestock (Such as Romanian, Australian, etc.)?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
As long as the sheep meets the prescribed Sharia age and is free from disqualifying defects, it is valid for sacrifice regardless of its country of origin. Therefore, it is permissible to offer sacrifices from various sources, such as: Romanian, Australian, Spanish, Indian, Sudanese, local (Baladi) livestock, and others. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it acceptable to perform the Aqiqah for a male child by slaughtering and distributing the first sheep, and bringing the second one cooked from the restaurant?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible to slaughter the first sheep with the intention of Aqiqah (the newborn's sacrificial offering) and distribute it entirely [uncooked], and to slaughter the second sheep and have it cooked at a restaurant to bring home for the household. However, it must be noted that it is obligatory to give some portion of the Aqiqah in charity to the poor, even if it is a small amount, though it is preferable to send the food cooked to them.

Buying a pre-cooked, ready-made sheep from a restaurant does not suffice as an Aqiqah. However, if an agreement is made with the restaurant to explicitly slaughter a sheep with the intention of Aqiqah for the newborn, and then cook it afterward, this is permissible.

In conclusion, slaughtering the sheep and distributing it with the intention of Aqiqah is permissible, and through it, the foundational prophetic tradition (Sunnah) is fulfilled. As for simply buying a cooked sheep from a restaurant that was not specifically slaughtered with the intention of Aqiqah, it will not count as such. Conversely, if the restaurant owner is commissioned (Wakala) to handle both the slaughtering and the cooking as an Aqiqah, it is valid. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on following the actions of the imam in prayer and how this following is achieved?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The follower (ma'mum) is required to follow his imam in the actions of the prayer. This "following" (mutaba'ah) means that the follower performs each action of the prayer after the imam has begun it but before he has finished it. For example, the follower bows (in ruku') after the imam has reached the position of bowing, then rises after the imam has risen. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The imam is only appointed to be followed, so when he says the takbir, say the takbir; and when he bows, then bow; and when he prostrates, then prostrate" (agreed upon, i.e., reported by both al-Bukhari and Muslim).
It is stated in Mughni al-Muhtaj (1/505): "Among the conditions of valid congregational prayer (iqtida') is following the imam in the actions of the prayer... meaning that following the imam is obligatory in the physical actions of the prayer, not in its verbal utterances... Complete following (kamal al-mutaba'ah) is achieved when the follower's beginning of an action comes after the imam's beginning of that same action, while the follower's beginning of the action precedes the imam's completion of it" — end of quote, with slight paraphrasing.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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