Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(1): "Sharia Ruling on Lease Premium“

Date Added : 25-01-2018

Resolution No.(1) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:   

  "Sharia Ruling on Lease Premium"

 

Question: What is the ruling of Sharia on lease premium and the money paid against that, and is it permissible according to the rulings of Islamic Sharia?

Answer: All perfect praise is due to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His Blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his Family and Companions.

 

Ijarah (hiring) is permissible in Islamic Sharia since the Prophet (PBUH) was sent to humanity while people were leasing and taking on lease, so he permitted that. It is well known that Ijarah is a contract whereby two parties agree upon a certain benefit in return for a compensation, that is money.

Ijarah is actually purchasing a benefit, and it is permissible to conclude an Ijarah contract upon lawful benefits, so the benefit of the leased estate is the right of the lessee, and so he enjoys the right of staying in the estate upon which the leasing contract has been concluded. Islamic Sharia has given a lessee the right of staying and residing in the leased estate, so none has the right to drive him/her out of it, and this right has a financial value according to Islamic Sharia as well as custom.

If a lessee was driven out of the estate without being paid the value of that right (lease premium), he/she may not be able to find a similar one without paying substantial amounts of money.

A lease premium is an integral part of the rent that has been agreed upon by both parties (lessor and lessee); therefore, it is permissible that the lessee pays it to the owner as a part of the rent i.e. the value of the benefit. The lessee is also permitted to sell his right in this benefit and take the lease premium from whoever wishes to purchase it for a price higher, or  lower  than that which he had paid to the owner in the first place.

On the other hand, Muslim jurists  permitted employing such a method on the estates pertaining to Islamic Awqaf (endowments) during the tenth, ninth, and eighth  centuries (H). They passed a legal ruling which  states that the Awqaf administrator has no authority to drive a lessee out of an estate so long as the latter is willing to pay the rent agreed upon in the contract. This way, Muslim jurists have given the lessee of an Awqaf estate the right to remain in it and permitted him to receive a lease premium in case he wished to vacate the estate. By analogy, it is permissible for a lessee, in ordinary types of estates, to demand a lease premium so long as the law grants him the right to stay in the estate even after the expiry of the contact. The law permitted this as a regulative measure  meant to prevent injustice, and after consulting people of sound opinion and expertise; it is parallel to putting price tags on commodities to prevent traders from rigging prices.

 

It is a purely commercial transaction that  involves buying and selling beyond suspicions of Riba (usury), or unlawfulness; therefore, contracting parties aren`t considered sinful so long as the contract has been concluded with their mutual consent. It is also impermissible for any party to revoke the contract except with the consent of the other party. And Allah Knows Best.

 

The Board of Iftaa'

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Summarized Fatawaa

"I told my family at night: 'I will fast tomorrow as qaḍā' (a make-up fast),' but I forgot to make the intention before sleeping. Is my fast valid?"

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
 
The intention is obligatory in acts of worship. For obligatory fasting, the required intention is to resolve to fast during the night [before dawn]. Its proper locus is the heart, while verbalizing the intention out loud in acts of worship is a sunnah — so that the tongue may align with the heart. If the intent behind the statement in question was the intention to fast, then it is valid; but if the intent was merely to inform someone, or reflected hesitation or doubt, then it is not valid.
 
It is stated in *Bushrā al-Karīm* (Vol.1/P.216): "It is a sunnah to verbalize the intention — that is, whatever has already been intended in the heart, whether an obligatory or a voluntary act — such as specifying the number of rak‘ahs, just before the opening takbīr — so that the tongue may assist the heart, and because this is further removed from whispered doubts (waswasah), and in order to accommodate the view of those who held it obligatory in every act of worship that requires an intention (even though this is a minority position), by analogy with Ḥajj."
 
Accordingly: if the intention to fast arose in your heart before the second adhān [i.e., before Fajr], then your fast is valid.
 
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

I`m a pious Muslim woman, but my husband isn`t, what should I do?

You should exercise patience, make supplication that Allah guides him to the straight path, and keep advising him kindly.

Does the fast become invalid if water from rinsing the mouth reaches the stomach while performing ablution?

If water reaches the stomach without the fasting person exceeding normal rinsing or being excessive, their fast remains valid.
However, if they exceed the normal practice or exaggerate in rinsing, causing water to enter the stomach, their fast is invalid.
This is because excessiveness in rinsing is prohibited for a fasting person, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Exaggerate inhaling water during ablution, except when you are fasting." [Narrated by the Four Imams]
Transgression (Ta‘addi) refers to rinsing the mouth more than three times, while exaggeration (Mubalaghah) includes gargling, drawing water deep into the nasal passages, or filling the mouth with water in an unusual manner.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.