Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(98): "Ruling on the Statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Employees` Association"

Date Added : 08-12-2015

 

Resolution No.(98) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Employees` Association"

 

 

We have received the following question:

What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on the statute of Al-Ballorah Assakhina Association?

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

Having reviewed the statute of the above association, the Board is of the view that article four of the annexed statute must be amended. It originally stated:

"A member of the association shall be responsible for paying the price of the commodity after examining it and agreeing with the seller on the price, and he shall not hand the money to the beneficiary whatever the case may be."

The Board believes that this article must be rewritten as follows: "The association shall deputize one of its members to purchase the commodity required by the beneficiary after examining it and paying its price to the seller. Once the association takes possession of the commodity, it shall resell it to the beneficiary."

The Board have demanded this amendment because it isn`t permissible for the association to sell the commodity to the beneficiary except after purchasing and taking possession of it so as to avoid the suspicion of Riba (usury/interest), as indicated in the following Hadith narrated by Hakim Bin Hizam: "I bought some food and made food and made a profit on it (by selling it) before I took possession of it. I came to the Messenger of Allah and told him about that and he said: "Do not sell it until you take possession of it." {Narrated by Ahmad in his Mussnad, vol.3/pp.402}. And Allah Knows Best.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on a mother giving the Zakat of her wealth to her children?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible for a mother to give her children from the Zakat if they are among those who are eligible for it—such as being poor (Fuqara), possessing no wealth, and not being sufficiently provided for by the maintenance (Nafaqah) of others. This is based on the statement of the Messenger of Allah ﷺ regarding Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud (may Allah be pleased with them both): (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend in charity) [Narrated by Al-Bukhari].
 
It is stated in [Al-Hawi al-Kabir, Vol. 8/P.537]: 'As for the wife, it is permissible for her to pay her Zakat to her husband from all the designated shares... Our evidence is the generality of the saying of Allah the Almighty: "Zakat expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy", and the Hadith of Abu Hurairah that the Prophet ﷺ said to Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud: (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend), and this is taken in its general sense.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?

It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.

Is it permissible to slaughter one animal as a sacrifice and an Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth)?

It is impermissible to do so since each of them is slaughtered for a different reason.

What is the ruling on the fasting of a woman who has reached menopause if menstrual blood flows?

If a woman reaches the age of menopause (which is usually sixty-two) and her menses have ceased, then she sees blood after that, and its duration is not less than a day and a night (24 hours), it is menstruation (hayd). If it is less than a day and a night, she is considered as having non-menstrual vaginal bleeding (mustahada), so she fasts and prays. However, she must perform ablution for every obligatory prayer after its time enters, pray immediately, and be treated as a person with a continuous condition. There is no specific end limit for a woman's menstruation; it is possible as long as the woman is alive. And Allah the Almighty knows best.